Berkeley's Treatise and Dialogues As It Is

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Extrain
 
Reply Tue 30 Mar, 2010 01:23 am
@Humanity,
Quote:

"As this passage illustrates, Berkeley does not deny the existence of ordinary objects such as stones, trees, books, and apples.
Thus, although there is no material world for Berkeley, there is a physical world, a world of ordinary objects

This world is mind-dependent, for it is composed of ideas, whose existence consists in being perceived. For ideas, and so for the physical world, esse est percipi."


Therefore, we can draw the conclusion at the end from all of the following premises Berkeley has explicitly stated in his texts:

all physical things are ideas, which are sensations, which are primary and secondary qualities, which are not substances, which are therefore not actual things because that is what a substance is--it is the unoberseved metaphysical support which allegedly unites all these primary and secondary qualities together making one thing which supports these qualites. And since (1) this substance does not exist, which Berkeley explicitly denied as existing in the Treatise, since (2) to be is to be perceived (esse est percipi), and since (3) common sense matter is the only thing that is perceived directly because this matter just IS the primary and secondary qualities perceived, and finally, since (4) commonsense matter exists ONLY in the mind as Berkeley explicitly says in the Treatise Passage I've already quoted,

Therefore,

Nothing exists independent of the mind or some mind, exept for other minds themselves (incorporeal substances).

Quote:
The concept above is mind-boggling as in Samm's post in the other thread.
Quote:
Untangling and unravelling the above concept is the key to understanding Berkeley in greater depth.
Quote:



Berkeley didn't say anything more than what's already mentioned in that Stanford Article. So you are not going to pull much more out of him, unless you want to start INVENTING THINGs HE NEVER SAID WHICH CONTINUE TO DO. But you can't do this because you don't know Berkeley actually said it or believed it or held it or wanted to believe it either.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Tue 30 Mar, 2010 03:10 pm
@Humanity,
I have to say, I think extrain has the better of the argument, although it has generated almost as much smoke as light. But he has made clear to me the weaknesses of Berkeley's argument, especially that it has no clear ground for distinguishing true perceptions from false ones, and also the very real differences between Kant and Berkeley. I have a much better idea of the way in which Kant was a realist now. Actually I had made this point some months ago, and was told I was wrong, but didn't know the sources.

As a very general observation, I think the tension between various forms of idealism, and various forms of materialism or objectivism, will remain perennial in Western philosophy. It is a continual vacilitation between 'subjective' and 'objective', 'self' and 'world', 'idea' and 'object'. It cannot be resolved from within the framework in which Western philosophy exists.

As regards my contention about the shortcomings of the modern analytical tradition, I believe that this has been vindicated to some extent by extrain's admission that he has also has had to seek truth in something outside of the discipline of philosophy. This is however a personal matter and I have no wish to debate it further. There may be scope for further discussion of those issues in some other areas of the forum.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 02:20 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;146337 wrote:
As a very general observation, I think the tension between various forms of idealism, and various forms of materialism or objectivism, will remain perennial in Western philosophy. It is a continual vacilitation between 'subjective' and 'objective', 'self' and 'world', 'idea' and 'object'.


I agree completely. Check out, if you haven't already, Thomas Nagel's A View From Nowhere. Classic!

jeeprs;146337 wrote:
It cannot be resolved from within the framework in which Western philosophy exists.


Ok, you have to ask yourself the question, first, what problem it is that actually needs to be resolved. Problems have to be explicitly defined before we know what to look for in a range of possible solutions. There are tons of problems concerning this. But here is one problem I am confident Kant solved.

Does a world really exists independent of Mind?

Kant successfuly demonstrated that there was. He also showed that we can know this veryfact, namely, that there exists an external world independent of Mind. He also demonstrated that we can know what happens in this external world independent of our minds, since, though we can perceive things directly, it is also impossible that this external world just is our perceptions because, if it were, cognition itself would be impossible.

Jeeprs, truly take this to heart, i've been around enough Kant scholars who viewed Kants genius in the following way.

He reversed the question Berkeley was asking. Berkeley asked how it is that we know our minds conform to the world. Kant asked how it is that we know the world conforms to our mind.

If you want to know the KEY to understanding everything Kant said, it is this:

Berkeley asked how we can know that our own minds conform to things as they really are indepndent of our minds conceptions and perceptions of them. The skepticsm is inescapable by asking it this way. And Berkeley "solved" this skepticism by saying our conceptions and perceptions just ARE that world.

Kant asked the exact opposite question:

Kant asked how we know it is even possible that things as they really are conform to our mind's conceptions and perceptions of it independently of our mind's actual conception of how things really are. And Kant solved this "skepticism" by saying that it is impossible for an external world independent of my mind to even exist without my mind's structuring of something that must necessarily exist independent of my mind to structure. Therefore, things really exist independent of my mind to structure, and most of the world, but not all stuff in that world, is necessarily tied up with that very structure which accurately represents how the world really is.

Intuitively this makes sense, then: The cooperative interplay between our minds and the world consists in a kind of contintual check and balance system that happens between the two. So that's we are always correcting our mistakes, and learning new things about the way the world works. duh, right?

I would even recommend contemplating the difference betwen those two questions for a long time to come. Formulating those two questions just now even took a significant amount of time to do. Kant's way of looking at the problem to be solved was his genius, not his answer!!! That's why I love that man to death.:bigsmile:

jeeprs;146337 wrote:
As regards my contention about the shortcomings of the modern analytical tradition, I believe that this has been vindicated to some extent by extrain's admission that he has also has had to seek truth in something outside of the discipline of philosophy.


Yes. Did I ever say otherwise? But nothing has been "vindicated." I only said not to blame analytic philosophy for this "alleged failure" to ask the right questions. It does ask them. But there are some questions about Human Truth it can't even ask in order to solve, since it is not there to solve them. Just like you don't expect mathematics to answer questions about beauty. Or expect physics to answer questions about God's Purpose for Humanity as a Whole.
jeeprs;146337 wrote:
This is however a personal matter and I have no wish to debate it further.


It is no more personal than figuring out how to ask the right questions. Expecting a discipline to ask the questions it was never intended to answer is like expecting a hair-drier to cook your breakfast.

jeeprs;146337 wrote:
There may be scope for further discussion of those issues in some other areas of the forum.


You're a goof. I keep getting the impression you are performing commentary as much as you are contributing to the thread. it's like you're narrating and "summing up" what's going on as if to "tie the loose ends" together. But I always feel like everything is just getting started because I am always coming up with new questions.Smile
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 02:30 am
@Humanity,
Guilty as charged. Goofiness has always been one of my specialities.

---------- Post added 03-31-2010 at 07:45 PM ----------

Extrain;146557 wrote:
I agree completely. Check out, if you haven't already, Thomas Nagel's A View From Nowhere. Classic!


I will - have just bought another Nagel book, he is someone I am really starting to like.

Extrain;146557 wrote:


Does a world really exists independent of Mind?

Kant successfuly demonstrated that there was. He also showed that we can know this very fact, namely, that there exists an external world independent of Mind. He also demonstrated that we can know what happens in this external world independent of our minds, since, though we can perceive things directly, it is also impossible that this external world just is our perceptions because, if it were, cognition itself would be impossible.


Here's another way of contemplating the question, though. If we say 'experience' instead of 'mind', then where exactly is the demarcation point between 'world' and 'experience'? All I will ever have is my 'experience of the world'. This doesn't deny the fact that there is a world apart from my experience of it, but my experience of it is really what matters, from the viewpoint of philosophy, anyway. I mean, through science, I can find out all kinds of previously unimaginable things about it. But from a human perspective reality is lived experience. And in fact that is one of the things Nagel has really helped identify.

I do agree that Kant showed a way that while our mind is fundamental to the reality of lived experience, at the same time, he avoided the collapse into meaningless skepticism where mind is all that we know. But I have a long way to go with reading him yet.
 
Humanity
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 03:11 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;146337 wrote:
I have a much better idea of the way in which Kant was a realist now. Actually I had made this point some months ago, and was told I was wrong, but didn't know the sources.
I am not sure how you interpret Kant as a realist.

As far as i know, Kant is a transcendental idealist and an empirical realist as a subset of his transcendental idealism.

To Kant, the external world is independent of Mind, but that is qualified by space in us, thus ultimately reality is mind interdependent.
Note this in Kant's own words

The transcendental idealist, on the other hand, may be an empirical realist or, as he is called, a dualist;
that is, he may admit the existence of matter without going outside his mere self-consciousness,
or assuming anything more than the certainty of his representations, that is, the cogito, ergo sum.
For he considers this matter and even its inner possibility to be appearance merely; and appearance,
if separated from our sensibility, is nothing.
Matter is with him, therefore, only a species of representations (intuition),
which are called external, not as standing in relation to objects in themselves external,
but because they relate perceptions to the space in which all things are external to one another,
while yet the space itself is in us.

[CPR - Fourth Paralogism: Of Ideality]


Each of the Kant terms in the above are really heavy weights but 'space' as Kant stated above, which is one of the most fundamental variable of his Critique is, "in us".
I would suggest you do a thorough exploration of the Critique rather than to rely on 'faith'.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 04:08 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;146559 wrote:
I will - have just bought another Nagel book, he is someone I am really starting to like.


I like him alot too, actually, because the other extreme is Materialism at its worst that he is always attacking, a school of thought which I don't respect at all. Knowing what I do about where most philosophers stand today concerning various issues, I would call them "Idealist/Materialists"--truly.

I am a mix of both too. But what these philosophers apply these respective categories to is just backwards from how they should be applied--in my not so humble opinion.

jeeprs;146559 wrote:
Here's another way of contemplating the question, though. If we say 'experience' instead of 'mind', then where exactly is the demarcation point between 'world' and 'experience'?


I guess I will just answer how Kant would answer that:

"Experience" is BOTH the world and mind together in one whole package.

jeeprs;146559 wrote:
All I will ever have is my 'experience of the world'.


That's just trivially true, isn't it? After all, we don't know everything.
And we would be presumptuous if we think we did.

jeeprs;146559 wrote:
This doesn't deny the fact that there is a world apart from my experience of it, but my experience of it is really what matters, from the viewpoint of philosophy, anyway.


I suppose that's true. But it is very vague what you mean by "really what matters from the viewpoint of philosophy." I don't know what that's supposed to mean...

jeeprs;146559 wrote:
I mean, through science,


...oh, there it is. That's what you mean. lol. You mean "through science," not, "through philosophy."

jeeprs;146559 wrote:
I can find out all kinds of previously unimaginable things about it. But from a human perspective reality is lived experience. And in fact that is one of the things Nagel has really helped identify.


True. Nagel talks the same way in many respects in his A View From Nowhere. But I'm confident Nagel NEVER advanced any extreme positions about Objectivity VERSUS Subjectivity--as if one "Viewpoint" held any more sway over the other. I think they should be an interplay in the constant quest for truth--and I'm sure Nagel held the same thing. But keep in mind Nagel's Model is only a Model. And it is not always clear how to fit things into that model, or what to fit into the model. In other words, his model doesn't actually TELL us which questions go where, and which answers to these questions go where. So it has always been a very abstracted away of looking at distinctions anyway as it is.
So what one person decides to do here, another will decide to do that same thing there.

jeeprs;146559 wrote:
I do agree that Kant showed a way that while our mind is fundamental to the reality of lived experience, at the same time, he avoided the collapse into meaningless skepticism where mind is all that we know. But I have a long way to go with reading him yet.


Yeah, actually learning Kant's philosophy is a huge task to undertake--it actually took me quite a few years studying the background of a host of other philosophical problems until I really understood what Kant said. It wasn't until I started hanging around some Kant scholars, and getting drilled by Bob Hanna himself in an entire graduate course about the Critique of Pure Reason itself, and enough nights of wine (I hate wine) discussing these things with him, that I really understood. Hanna is a cool Canadian, but he's kind of a dork.

Anyway, the greatest piece on Kant ever written (in my opinion) is Hanna's Foundations of Analytic Philosophy Vol I. and Kant, Science, and Human Nature Vol II. is truly amazing because everything Kant had to say came down to Kant's Theory of Judgment. Hanna has an entry about it too in the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy. It's the crux to understanding Kant at all. And alot of scholars agree like Guyer and Longuenesse. If you ever, by God, get the chance to read some of those articles in Stanford it might help in understanind his philosophy better--but I can't guarantee that. Kant IS difficult, even for me at times. The Critique is a Gold Mine of Ideas floating around, and Berkeley's philosophy is for amateurs. The amount of effort required to learn either Kant's or Berkeley's philosopy is analogous to the amount of effort needed to devote oneself to learning you Multiplication Tables and learning Calculus 3, and I'm not joking. They are that far apart.

Here's the problem: as soon as you think you've understood a certain aspect of Kant, ESPECIALLY if you've never read him before, there is 95% chance you haven't understood him at all (and that has been the problem with Humanity's bastardizing Kant). For Kant, the words aren't just "sitting there on the page" waiting to picked up and used, or even understood. The man truly had an amazing ability to synthesize the most complex thoughts into a beautifully articulated whole. That's just because of the nature of what Transcendental Philososphy consists of doing (which Berkely never even undertook, by the way--Berkeley merely *analyzed* sensations into their component parts. Kant was looking for the necessary grounds and metaphysical principles that made sensations and cognitive representations possible at all. Analyzing the component parts of sensation is not doing the same thing as finding the necessary analytic a priori ground of what makes consciousness possible at all in the first place--that's a huge difference in philosophical approaches to the mind. People, like Humanity, think that Kant's philosophy was just an extension of Berkeley's analysis of sensations. But this is completley false. To be Kantian about your approach to the Mind, you are NOT analyzing CONTENT, you are uncovering what makes content possible. You are not analyzing sensations, you are uncovering what makes sensations possible. You are not analyzing concepts and ideas, or telling us how concepts and ideas are constructed or abstracted; you are uncovering what makes this constructing, this abstracting, possible at all--which takes place according to all the logical and metaphysical necessary a priori principles of the understandingetc...)

So you won't find Kant's philosophy in an introduction, or on a page, like you can find Berkeley's philosophy of Idealism on a single page. Berkeley had different ways of saying the same thing. But Kant had the same way of saying many very different things. And that's the trick to udnerstanding the difference between what the two philosphers actually said. Just because of my years of traing, reading, and discussing Berkeley, what he actually believes just leaps right out at me from the text most of the time than not. For Kant, it doesn't. It takes years of work. And I continue to learn new things.

sorry for the rambling. All of the simple-minded Apologetics I've undertaken on this forum with two philosophers has me a little wired.

And just for the record. The way that I've been articulating Berkeley's and Kant's differences on this thread has been pretty simple-minded just so I could try to get through to Humanity. Believe me, there are better ways of articulating the two philosphers. And I prefer heavy analysis anyway. Do you remember when I first started to do that? I got *slammed* for "being a dogmatic analytic philsopher"--whatever that is supposed to mean. I get accused of performing "strawmans" and "not having actually understood either of them"--and it is pretty lame that I have to put with that crap, because you don't *read* philosophers like you're reading a dinner menue. You *read* them like you're trying to solve a big problem at stake. And Humanity doesn't get that at all, which makes him miss what's actually being said in the text. You don't "fill in" for what you *think* the philosopher said when you are lacking textual support for something, you charitably paraphraze to the best of your ability what the philosopher actually did say consistent with what he actually says elsewhere in his philosophy. And this requires you to use you brain and your intellectual muscle power to do any justice to the philosopher's philosophy at all.

alright, enough said....i'm tired.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 04:33 am
@Humanity,
Yeah but this is an open forum, not a postgrad seminar. I do appreciate your level of professionalism and passion, but bear that in mind. I will take your advice on the readings, though, and thanks for it.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 04:45 am
@jeeprs,
Well what other way do you suggest I approach the topic of "how to read Kant"? This IS a philosophy forum, by the way. So you are going to get grad students on here like myself who take these matters seriously, and to heart. So I am not "out of place" by approaching things this way. It's not exactly "amateur hour" for everyone, including myself, just because some others are really amateurs. I've wasted enough time already on a persenting a kind of elementary apologetics to a really stubborn-minded person. I can tell, however, that you are very capable. So I guess I felt I was being complementary in spirit rather than condescending...but I probably come off that way quite a bit, I'm sure. It's my own fault because I am an academic. But keep in mind, my intentions are good.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 04:52 am
@Humanity,
Don't get me wrong, I really like your approach and have learned A TON already. Keep going by all means. I am just a bit of a wuss, that is my problem.

Actually there is an idea I have posted in Metaphysics, called a non-metaphysical theory. I would really like some input on it. It is an idea I have been working on and I am sure there is something elementary wrong with it, but nobody has been able to tell me yet.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 05:05 am
@Humanity,
Humanity;146567 wrote:
I am not sure how you interpret Kant as a realist.

As far as i know, Kant is a transcendental idealist and an empirical realist as a subset of his transcendental idealism.

To Kant, the external world is independent of Mind, but that is qualified by space in us, thus ultimately reality is mind interdependent.
Note this in Kant's own words

The transcendental idealist, on the other hand, may be an empirical realist or, as he is called, a dualist;
that is, he may admit the existence of matter without going outside his mere self-consciousness,
or assuming anything more than the certainty of his representations, that is, the cogito, ergo sum.
For he considers this matter and even its inner possibility to be appearance merely; and appearance,
if separated from our sensibility, is nothing.
Matter is with him, therefore, only a species of representations (intuition),
which are called external, not as standing in relation to objects in themselves external,
but because they relate perceptions to the space in which all things are external to one another,
while yet the space itself is in us.

[CPR - Fourth Paralogism: Of Ideality]


Each of the Kant terms in the above are really heavy weights but 'space' as Kant stated above, which is one of the most fundamental variable of his Critique is, "in us".
I would suggest you do a thorough exploration of the Critique rather than to rely on 'faith'.


NO! These are PARALOGISMS OF PURE REASON--it is contained in the TRANSCENDENTAL DIALECTIC PIECE of KANT'S PHILOSOPHY--where he is mentioning the ILLUSORY ARGUMENTS you are quoting from his text so that he can CRITICIZE them.

You actually just undermined your own FALSE interpretation of Kant by quoting this very passage. So you are even MORE wrong than before. Actually, I find it quite humorous you just did this too...lol

The Title of the passage you are reading from is:

Criticism of the Fourth Paralogism of Transcendental Psychology.

"Paralogism" means "fallacious, illogical, or illusory argument"

And Kant is Criticizing the ARGUMENTS offered by TRANSCENDENTAL PSYCHOLOGY.

In the Transcendental ANALYTIC Kant never says SPACE, TIME, or MATTER are MERELY WITHIN US. And he DOESN'T say SPACE, TIME, MATTER are APPEARANCES.

SIMPLY PUT--KANT NEVER SAYS ANYTHING IN THE PASSAGE YOU JUST QUOTED IN THE TRANSCENDENTAL ANALYTIC or in the TRANSCENDENTAL AESTHETIC.

---------- Post added 03-31-2010 at 05:09 AM ----------

jeeprs;146588 wrote:
Don't get me wrong, I really like your approach and have learned A TON already. Keep going by all means. I am just a bit of a wuss, that is my problem.

Actually there is an idea I have posted in Metaphysics, called a non-metaphysical theory. I would really like some input on it. It is an idea I have been working on and I am sure there is something elementary wrong with it, but nobody has been able to tell me yet.


See, I actually like discussing people's other thoughts when they have a cool idea of their own that they drew up. That's what philosophy is all about. That's what I like discussing. So I'd love to hear it. But beware, i'll will probably bombard you with tons of questions.

*And don't pay attention to Humanity's misuse of Kant's text just now. I responded accordingly.

I find it funny that I just got done talking about how NOT to misuse other people's philosophies and we get this above....seriously what's wrong with people? They's need to goes bak to skool and git's an edtzicashon
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 05:44 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;146578 wrote:


All we have is our experience

That's just trivially true, isn't it?




.


In the sense in which it is true, it is trivially true. But, in the sense in which it is false, it is substantively false.

The thing is (that as Hume taught us) we should not think it is true in the substantive sense just because it is true in the trivial sense.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 06:05 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;146598 wrote:
In the sense in which it is true, it is trivially true. But, in the sense in which it is false, it is substantively false.

The thing is (that as Hume taught us) we should not think it is true in the substantive sense just because it is true in the trivial sense.


Actually, that sounds altogether right! Nice job of driving it home!
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 06:11 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;146605 wrote:
Actually, that sounds altogether right! Nice job of driving it home!


So (but) it is not really true that all we have is our own experience. We have our knowledge that there are mind-independent objects. (Although Hume thought, for reasons of his own, that we could not know this).
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 06:16 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;146606 wrote:
So, it is not really true that all we have is our own experience. We have our knowledge that there are mind-independent objects. (Although Hume thought, for reasons of his own, that we could not know this).


Yes. I explained in the post before that one, Kant's brilliance. Did you read it by chance, where I contrasted how Berkeley (the empiricists) and Kant approached the whole problem at hand with respect to what we can know? It was just a general outline, but is very significant for understanding traditional skepticism versus a cautious realism.

Kant reversed the question to be asked. And I've heard or come across several Kant scholars who said this very thing.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 06:44 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;146607 wrote:
Yes. I explained in the post before that one, Kant's brilliance. Did you read it by chance, where I contrasted how Berkeley (the empiricists) and Kant approached the whole problem at hand with respect to what we can know? It was just a general outline, but is very significant for understanding traditional skepticism versus a cautious realism.

Kant reversed the question to be asked. And I've heard or come across several Kant scholars who said this very thing.



Yes. I just thought that when you wrote that all we have is our own experience is trivially true that you mean that it was true, and everyone knew it was true. Because that would be misleading. In fact, in the substantial sense, nearly everyone believes it is false, and they are right. For instance, you and I don't believe it. For instance, I think that Jeeprs thinks that not only is it true, but it is true in the substantial sense. But I take it that you don't agree with that.
 
Humanity
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 07:46 am
@Extrain,
Quote:

In the Transcendental ANALYTIC Kant never says SPACE, TIME, or MATTER are MERELY WITHIN US. And he DOESN'T say SPACE, TIME, MATTER are APPEARANCES.

SIMPLY PUT--KANT NEVER SAYS ANYTHING IN THE PASSAGE YOU JUST QUOTED IN THE TRANSCENDENTAL ANALYTIC or in the TRANSCENDENTAL AESTHETIC.




Quote:

By means of outer sense, a property of our mind, we represent to ourselves objects as outside us, and all without exception in space.
- CoPR -The Transcendental Aesthetic -Section I

External objects or objects outside us are linked to a property of our mind, therefore external objects are mind interdependent.

Quote:

The Transcendental Exposition of the Concept of Space
I understand by a transcendental exposition the explanation of a concept, as a principle from which the possibility of other a priori synthetic knowledge can be understood.
For this purpose it is required (1) that such knowledge does really flow from the given concept, (2) that this knowledge is possible only on the assumption of a given mode of explaining the concept.
Geometry is a science which determines the properties of space synthetically, and yet a priori.
What, then, must be our representation of space, in order that such knowledge of it may be possible?
It [space] must in its origin be intuition; for from a mere concept no propositions can be obtained which go beyond the concept -- as happens in geometry (Introduction, V).
Further, this intuition must be a priori, that is, it [intuition] must be found in us prior to any perception of an object, and must therefore be pure, not empirical, intuition.
CoPR -The Transcendental Aesthetic -Section I



[ xxxx ] in the quote above is added by me

Summary
It [space] must in its origin be intuition.
This intuition must be a priori
It [intuition] must be found in us prior to any perception of an object.
It [intuition]must therefore be pure, not empirical, intuition.

From the above it is obvious that space is "in us" as it originates from pure intuition which is "in us".
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 08:02 am
@Humanity,
Humanity;146628 wrote:
External objects or objects outside us are linked to a property of our mind, therefore external objects are mind interdependent.




.


Non-sequitur. How is it "linked"?
 
Humanity
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 08:07 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;146638 wrote:
Non-sequitur. How is it "linked"?
Why don't you read up Kant's Critique first.
Its a long story.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 08:15 am
@Humanity,
Humanity;146644 wrote:
Why don't you read up Kant's Critique first.
Its a long story.


But now you have indicated how it is linked, and how it is not linked too. Now, that question is whether if it is linked in the way that Kant argues, does it follow that external objects could not exist unless human beings exist. That does not seem to be true.
 
Humanity
 
Reply Wed 31 Mar, 2010 08:43 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;146651 wrote:
But now you have indicated how it is linked, and how it is not linked too. Now, that question is whether if it is linked in the way that Kant argues, does it follow that external objects could not exist unless human beings exist. That does not seem to be true.
I understand your point and you will probably end up stating that the moon existed before consciousness.
As i do not have CoPR on my fingertips at present, i do not want to venture to reply, otherwise it will be a long drawn issue.
I am refreshing the whole of the Critique again, if i am confident
to argue from Kant POV I will do so, but not at the moment.
On the other hand, to be fair, you will have to read the Critique as well, otherwise the other person will have to explain everything that you are not aware of in the Critique.
 
 

 
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