I know that I know

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ACB
 
Reply Wed 16 Dec, 2009 11:12 pm
@Emil,
Emil;111965 wrote:
Consider the case of Peter the student. Peter knows that modus ponens is a valid inference rule in classical logic. He knows this because he has read it in his logic textbook and heard it from his logic teacher who is a professor of philosophy.


Can he know this even if he does not know the meaning of the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule"?
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 16 Dec, 2009 11:13 pm
@ACB,
ACB;111995 wrote:
Can he know this even if he does not know the meaning of the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule"?


What does "this" refer to?
 
ACB
 
Reply Wed 16 Dec, 2009 11:18 pm
@Emil,
Emil;111997 wrote:
What does "this" refer to?


That modus ponens is a valid inference rule in classical logic.
 
mickalos
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 02:33 am
@ACB,
ACB;111995 wrote:
Can he know this even if he does not know the meaning of the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule"?


If he knows that the premises P, and if P then Q, entail the conclusion Q, then I don't think it would be incorrect to say that he knows that modus ponens is a valid inference rule.

I think a lot of the potential for worry about this kind of thing lies in the difference between the linguistic and the logical. Say for example that it is true that S knows that Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world; it also seems reasonable to say that S knows that Qomolangma (the Tibetan name for Everest) is the highest mountain in the world. From a logical point of view, both statements of knowledge seem to say the same thing, that S has a justified true belief that a certain relation holds between one particular mountain, and all of the other mountains. The 'particular mountain' being the one that is referred to by the two different names. We might say that names are the grammatical subjects of expressions, but particular objects are the logical subjects of expressions. On the other hand, S may have no idea that Qomolangma is the same thing as Everest, so if we were to ask S "Is Qomolangma the highest mountain in the world?" he might reply "No, Everest is."

My inclination is to say that S does know that Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world, reasoning as follows:
Premises
S knows Everest is the highest mountain in the world.
Everest = 'Qomolangma'

Conclusion
S knows Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world.

The worry arises because S does not know that Everest = 'Qomolangma'. This seems like a circumstance where it might be appropriate to say S does not know that he knows that Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world, while in the original case it would make sense to say that one did not know that one knew that modus ponens is a valid inference.

This seems to raise an issue with iterated knowledge. If we use the above reasoning, which seems to be sound, to say that S does not know that he knows that Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world; it still seems possible for S to know that he knows that Everest is the highest mountain in the world. This would certainly seem to be the case in the following exchange:
Q. Is Qomolangma the highest mountain in the world?
A. No, Everest is.
Q. Do you know that Everest is the highest mountain in the world?
A. Yes, I do know this.

However, in this case, there also seems to be a sense in which we may also say that S knows that he knows Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world. The logical sense, in which we mean that S has a justified true belief that his belief about a relation that obtains between a particular mountain (the one that is picked out by the names 'Everest' and 'Qomolangma') and all the other mountains is true and justified.

Apparently the rules governing how we may use the word 'know' are very very subtle.
 
ACB
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 08:55 am
@mickalos,
mickalos;112028 wrote:
If he knows that the premises P, and if P then Q, entail the conclusion Q, then I don't think it would be incorrect to say that he knows that modus ponens is a valid inference rule.


Thank you for your post. What I meant was: Does he know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule if he understands neither the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule" nor the fact that "the premises P, and if P then Q, entail the conclusion Q"? Does he know it merely because (a) it is true, (b) he is justified in believing it, having heard it from an authoritative source, and (c) he believes it on that basis?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 09:01 am
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;111990 wrote:
How does he know that he does not know what the sufficient conditions of knowledge are if he does not know the sufficient conditions of knowledge? How does he know that he does not know without knowing he knows?

Please, no outrage. Maybe it makes me smile, but I really want to know.


Just as someone may know he does not know what the capital of Ecuador is, even if he does not know what the capital of Ecuador is.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 09:09 am
@ACB,
ACB;112094 wrote:
Thank you for your post. What I meant was: Does he know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule if he understands neither the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule" nor the fact that "the premises P, and if P then Q, entail the conclusion Q"? Does he know it merely because (a) it is true, (b) he is justified in believing it, having heard it from an authoritative source, and (c) he believes it on that basis?


But Emil explicitly states:

Quote:

He knows this because he has read it in his logic textbook and heard it from his logic teacher who is a professor of philosophy.


Presumably he understands, to some extent, the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule", after being lectured on them and studying them in a textbook, don't you think?
 
ACB
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 09:20 am
@mickalos,
mickalos;112028 wrote:
My inclination is to say that S does know that Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world, reasoning as follows:
Premises
S knows Everest is the highest mountain in the world.
Everest = 'Qomolangma'

Conclusion
S knows Qomolangma is the highest mountain in the world.


If the above deduction is correct, what about the following?

1. S knows that every statement in his geography textbook is correct. (His well-qualified geography teacher has told him: "I have checked this book carefully, and everything in it is correct". The teacher is right, and S believes him.)

2. One of the statements in the textbook is that Quito is the capital of Ecuador.

3. Therefore, S knows that Quito is the capital of Ecuador, even if he has never heard of Quito or Ecuador.

This doesn't seem right to me. What do you think?
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 09:29 am
@fast,
ACB;112105 wrote:
If the above deduction is correct, what about the following?

1. S knows that every statement in his geography textbook is correct. (His well-qualified geography teacher has told him: "I have checked this book carefully, and everything in it is correct". The teacher is right, and S believes him.)

2. One of the statements in the textbook is that Quito is the capital of Ecuador.

3. Therefore, S knows that Quito is the capital of Ecuador, even if he has never heard of Quito or Ecuador.

This doesn't seem right to me. What do you think?


His belief that the geography textbook is without flaw, does not entail that he believes Quito is the capital of Ecuador. How would he believe that Quito is the capital of Ecuador, if he had never heard of Quito or Ecuador?

My believing that a textbook is reliable doesn't mean that I know everything in said textbook, does it?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 09:42 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;112109 wrote:
His belief that the geography textbook is without flaw, does not entail that he believes Quito is the capital of Ecuador. How would he believe that Quito is the capital of Ecuador, if he does not know what Quito or Ecuador are?

My believing that a textbook is reliable does mean that I know everything in said textbook, does it?



1. I know that Mark Twain wrote "Huckleberry Finn"
2. Mark Twain = Samuel L. Clemens

Therefore, 3. I know that Samuel L. Clemens wrote "Huckleberry Finn".

Clearly fallacious.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 10:56 am
@fast,
Emil wrote:

Peter also believes that he knows that modus ponens is a valid inference rule in classical logic. He is justified in his belief because the teacher has told him that he knows, and because the teacher is a very good authority for such a claim. It is also true that he knows that modus ponens is a valid inference rule in classical logic. Thus, he knows that he knows that modus ponens is a valid inference rule in classical logic. [Follows from the assumption of (∀P)(K(P)⇔(B(P)∧J(P)∧P))]


This demonstrates how one can know that they know, without knowing what knowledge is. Good!

Quote:

He is justified in his belief because the teacher has told him that he knows, and because the teacher is a very good authority for such a claim


And I think people will find this of most importance, as this is how he is justified in believing that he knows (which leads to him to knowing that he knows, since his belief is true).

So, it has been shown that it is possible someone can have a belief that they know something. It has been shown that this belief can be justified. And, lastly, it has been shown that this justified belief can be true. Never does knowing the conditions for knowledge come into play.

Thanks, Emil.

Now, does anyone wish to contest this?
 
ACB
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 11:47 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;112101 wrote:
Presumably he understands, to some extent, the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule", after being lectured on them and studying them in a textbook, don't you think?


If he needs to understand (i.e. know the conditions for using) the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule" (or some equivalent terminology) in order to know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule, why does he not need to know the conditions of knowledge (i.e. the conditions of using the word "knowledge" or an equivalent term) in order to know that he knows?

I understand Emil's argument; I just want to resolve this apparent inconsistency.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 12:00 pm
@fast,
ACB wrote:

If he needs to understand (i.e. know the conditions for using) the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule" (or some equivalent terminology) in order to know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule, why does he not need to know the conditions of knowledge (i.e. the conditions of using the word "knowledge" or an equivalent term) in order to know that he knows?


I can know that Quito is the capital of Ecuador, without knowing where Quito or Ecuador are on a map, or what the city Ecuador looks like in photos. I don't have to know practically anything about Quito or Ecuador to know that Quito is the capital of Ecuador. Isn't this true? One can know a fact like Trenton is the capital of New Jersey, and not have any idea about the details?

Similarly, the student can know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule. He need not know the details of modus ponens, or the details of all logical rules, to know this.
 
Emil
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 12:28 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;112132 wrote:
This demonstrates how one can know that they know, without knowing what knowledge is. Good!



And I think people will find this of most importance, as this is how he is justified in believing that he knows (which leads to him to knowing that he knows, since his belief is true).

So, it has been shown that it is possible someone can have a belief that they know something. It has been shown that this belief can be justified. And, lastly, it has been shown that this justified belief can be true. Never does knowing the conditions for knowledge come into play.

Thanks, Emil.

Now, does anyone wish to contest this?


One way is to contest that the justification given from the teacher about the student's knowledge is strong enough to warrant knowledge. Perhaps a general case could be made for that all appeals to authority are not strong enough to warrant knowledge.

---------- Post added 12-17-2009 at 07:29 PM ----------

ACB;112140 wrote:
If he needs to understand (i.e. know the conditions for using) the terms "modus ponens" and "inference rule" (or some equivalent terminology) in order to know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule, why does he not need to know the conditions of knowledge (i.e. the conditions of using the word "knowledge" or an equivalent term) in order to know that he knows?

I understand Emil's argument; I just want to resolve this apparent inconsistency.


I don't think he 'needs to' understand the terms modus ponens and inference rule in order to know that modus ponens is a valid inference rule. I can see why believing this would be 'inconsistent' in a sense.

--

By the way, the forum software now prevents me from seeing page three too. I would like to participate more but I cannot.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 12:32 pm
@fast,
Emil wrote:

One way is to contest that the justification given from the teacher about the student's knowledge is strong enough to warrant knowledge. Perhaps a general case could be made for that all appeals to authority are not strong enough to warrant knowledge.


This seems as though it would put into question many things that we say we know. I know that water is composed of H2O, and I only know this from my science professors and research documents (which are also written by authorities).

Quote:

By the way, the forum software now prevents me from seeing page three too. I would like to participate more but I cannot.


Have you tried changing browsers?
 
Emil
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 12:36 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;112156 wrote:
This seems as though it would put into question many things that we say we know. I know that water is composed of H2O, and I only know this from my science professors and research documents (which are also written by authorities).


Yes. But there may be limits for justification from authorities. I don't think there are so, but there may be. Someone could possibly argue it and be successful. (Note this word. Its spelling is particularly arbitrary. Double C and double S but no double L even though the word is normally spelled FULL!)

Quote:
Have you tried changing browsers?


Yes.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 12:56 pm
@fast,
Emil wrote:
Yes. But there may be limits for justification from authorities. I don't think there are so, but there may be. Someone could possibly argue it and be successful. (Note this word. Its spelling is particularly arbitrary. Double C and double S but no double L even though the word is normally spelled FULL!)

As long as we acknowledge that the authority isn't infallible, I don't see the problem. There are many things we are not experts on, and that we depend on authorities to know. We just have to take what we think we know from authorities with a grain of salt (like we should with most things we know!).

Seems like a solid justification to me. But again, as noted, we shouldn't believe the authority figure has epistemic certainty.

And, yeah, I don't understand why we spell "full" with two L's, but only use one L for the suffix "ful".
 
Emil
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 02:08 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;112164 wrote:
As long as we acknowledge that the authority isn't infallible, I don't see the problem. There are many things we are not experts on, and that we depend on authorities to know. We just have to take what we think we know from authorities with a grain of salt (like we should with most things we know!).

Seems like a solid justification to me. But again, as noted, we shouldn't believe the authority figure has epistemic certainty.

And, yeah, I don't understand why we spell "full" with two L's, but only use one L for the suffix "ful".


But then again, the thought example only requires that it is logically possible that a sufficient justification can be had from an appeal to authority. I don't see any good way to argue against that. That's why I accept the thought example.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 02:26 pm
@Emil,
Emil;112151 wrote:
One way is to contest that the justification given from the teacher about the student's knowledge is strong enough to warrant knowledge. Perhaps a general case could be made for that all appeals to authority are not strong enough to warrant knowledge.

---------- Post added 12-17-2009 at 07:29 PM ----------
.




That view would imply that if someone told me he had a headache, his authority would not be strong enough to warrant my knowing he has a headache.
 
Emil
 
Reply Thu 17 Dec, 2009 02:48 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;112187 wrote:
That view would imply that if someone told me he had a headache, his authority would not be strong enough to warrant my knowing he has a headache.


Oh, that's right. That clearly doesn't work.
 
 

 
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