The Fatal Paradox

Get Email Updates Email this Topic Print this Page

Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 10:26 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Either, not all causes there may be, are to get to him when deciding, or they do, and he decides according to them all... (INCLUDING HIM AND THE WORLD CONDITIONS)
...in none of the cases he can escape what he decides.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 10:32 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161765 wrote:
Either, not all causes there may be, are to get to him when deciding, or they do, and he decides according to them all...in none of the cases he can escape what he decides.


You are putting the cart before the horse. Together with all necessary causes along with my decision to do P, if I want to do P, then I do P. I don't necessarily do P.

You think we are all in prison. Saying "someone cannot escape what he decides" is just as dumb as saying "I cannot escape my chopping wood while I am chopping wood because I am not not chopping wood." This is plainly false. There is nothing necessary about my chopping the wood. If I choose to stop chopping wood, then I will stop chopping wood. Period.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 10:34 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;161764 wrote:
I repeat:

No. You still commit the same old modal fallacy. It is false that I could not have done otherwise. Just because I do P does not entail I necessarily do P. I could still have done ~P, and have done Q instead if I really wanted to.

You are putting the cart before the horse.


Or even if you had merely wanted to. Of course, if I had also wanted to, then, ceterus paribus I would have done it. But, that is merely a trivial truism. And, if Fil. Albuquerque only means to state that truism, fair enough. That is, if I have sufficiently motivating reasons to do A, and if I also want to do A, then (CP) I will do A.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 10:37 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;161768 wrote:
Or even if you had merely wanted to. Of course, if I had also wanted to, then, ceterus paribus I would have done it. But, that is merely a trivial truism. And, if Fil. Albuquerque only means to state that truism, fair enough. That is, if I have sufficiently motivating reasons to do A, and if I also want to do A, then (CP) I will do A.


Yes, that sounds good.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 10:42 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;161766 wrote:
You are putting the cart before the horse. Together with all necessary causes along with my decision to do P, if I want to do P, then I do P. I don't necessarily do P.

Someone who cannot "escape what he decides" is just as dumb as saying "I cannot escape my chopping wood while I am chopping wood because I am not not chopping wood." Who cares. There is nothing necessary about my chopping the wood. If I choose to stop chopping would, then I will stop chopping wood. Period.


---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 11:47 AM ----------

kennethamy;161768 wrote:
Or even if you had merely wanted to. Of course, if I had also wanted to, then, ceterus paribus I would have done it. But, that is merely a trivial truism. And, if Fil. Albuquerque only means to state that truism, fair enough. That is, if I have sufficiently motivating reasons to do A, and if I also want to do A, then (CP) I will do A.


What is the alternative ? Because you suggest there is one...it just happens the truism is all there is, and although you cannot know what will be, what will be has true value NOW !!!

If I had I could, only states that, if, does not equal what you in fact have done...

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 11:50 AM ----------

I have to go out now, I will come back later on.
Thank you for your time.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 10:53 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:


Exactly. You haven't said anything I haven't already addressed. The question for you is, why must my decision to do Q be the necessary effect of prior causes? Previous events may influence, or impact, my decision to do Q, so they may be necessary conditions for my deciding Q. But that does not mean those events are sufficient for my deciding Q, since I could decide R instead. So these prior events do not entail I MUST decide Q. Because something is necessary for something else, does not entail it is sufficient. Again: If it is snowing outside, then it is cold. If it is not cold, then it is not snowing. So its being cold is necessary for it to be snowing. But being cold is not sufficient for it to be snowing since other barometric factors have to be present in order for it to be snowing.

Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:
although adding other necessary causes at time 1 makes you do it if they are there..


I disagree. Certainly, other necessary causes can be added outside my decision to act logically prior to my actual decison to act. But this does not mean they are jointly sufficient without my decision to act. The necessary causes can be potentially infinite, for all I care. So in the case of my voluntary actions, doing P does not come about until I decide P. That's the one necessary condition missing in your account.

Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:
which they must given the world has an exact state in this panorama...what did you not understand in what I just said ???


The "world panorama" consists of all true propositions about what does happen, what could happen, and what must happen. So not every true proposition within that world set is necessarily true, because there is no reason to think this.

Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:
2- If you wanted to stop you would do it at time2 since at time1 you did choose to not do it...true value true remember ?


Everyone has already covered this empty red-herring. It doesn't make any difference. Just because it is true that I will do P, does not entail I MUST do P. Again, this is a modal fallacy, not to mention a category mistake. True propositions don't make people do things. The world makes people do things such as the involuntary act of my flying out the window of a car accident. The car accident was necessary and sufficient for my flying out the window, and I have no control over that. On the other hand, with respect to voluntary acts of my own, if it is true that I do P, such as Flying to London, it is because I, partially or fully, make P true. "P is true" does not "make" me do P. So some necessary conditions along with my decision to do P are jointly sufficient for my doing P.

Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:


Everyone has told you over and over again that it is impossible for a contingently true proposition to entail a necessary proposition. But you don't listen.

Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:
Its actually a very good question since it goes straight to the root of what cause means...I wish you could see that, but what can I do ?...


I've dealt with the metaphysics of a causation enough in my formal education to understand the issues on the table, thank you.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 11:34 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161770 wrote:

What is the alternative ? Because you suggest there is one...it just happens the truism is all there is, and although you cannot know what will be, what will be has true value NOW !!!

If I had I could, only states that, if, does not equal what you in fact have done...

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 11:50 AM ----------



There is no alternative to a truism than a falsism. But that does not mean that a truism is not, exactly that, just a truism. It is not a metaphysical necessity (whatever that is). It is just a tautology.

And yes, I certainly agree that if P is true then P is true. Why should I not? How could I not? So it is necessarily true that if P then, P. But that does not mean that if P then, necessarily P. And that is what you keep missing. You keep misplacing the necessary operator. Just because P is true, it does not follow that P is necessarily true. Just because I weigh 150 pounds I don't necessarily weigh 150 pounds, although necessarily, if I weigh 150 pounds, then I weigh 150 pounds.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 11:41 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;161788 wrote:
There is no alternative to a truism than a falsism. But that does not mean that a truism is not, exactly that, just a truism. It is not a metaphysical necessity (whatever that is). It is just a tautology.

And yes, I certainly agree that if P is true then P is true. Why should I not? How could I not? So it is necessarily true that if P then, P. But that does not mean that if P then, necessarily P. And that is what you keep missing. You keep misplacing the necessary operator. Just because P is true, it does not follow that P is necessarily true. Just because I weigh 150 pounds I don't necessarily weigh 150 pounds, although necessarily, if I weigh 150 pounds, then I weigh 150 pounds.


Exactly. This very same fallacy happens when people say that future facts are "fixed," implying what will happen, happens necessarily. So if it is true today that you will jump 1 foot tomorrow, it follows that you have no choice but to jump 1 foot tomorrow when the time comes because this event "must" happen.

Same with Amperage's misuse of the Principle of Bivalence for future tense propositions: He thinks that "Necessarily, all future tense propositions are true or false, but not both" logically implies, "All future tense propositions are necessarily true or necessarily false, but not both." This is another modal fallacy.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 11:48 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;161790 wrote:
Exactly. This very same fallacy happens when people say that future facts are "fixed," implying what will happen, happens necessarily. So if it is true today that you will jump 1 foot tomorrow, it follows that you have no choice but to jump 1 foot tomorrow when the time comes because this event "must" happen.

Same with Amperage's misuse of the Principle of Bivalence for future tense propositions: He thinks that "Necessarily, all future tense propositions are true or false, but not both" logically implies, "All future tense propositions are necessarily true or necessarily false, but not both." This is another modal fallacy.


The continued use of this fallacious kind of argument demonstrates the importance of knowing logic when we philosophize.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 11:58 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;161792 wrote:
The continued use of this fallacious kind of argument demonstrates the importance of knowing logic when we philosophize.


Absolutely. This lesson is always demonstrated time and again, but it too often gets unheeded.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 12:23 pm
@Extrain,
No !
Whatever I decide I must have good reason to do so, if I have it, then I decide accordingly, necessary condition to my choosing A rather then B, and not against my will...of course is also necessary, that the possibility of A rises in the background, in the World...both together are sufficient condition thus cause takes place. Otherwise cause would not take place, and there would be suspension of action...

Movement has a Cause ! (movement, energy transfer, needs explanation) (One explanation to One fact, not possibility for several)

Anyway I get your point well enough...
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 12:37 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161807 wrote:
No !
Whatever I decide I must have good reason to do so, if I have it, then I decide accordingly, necessary condition to my choosing A rather then B, and not against my will...of course is also necessary, that the possibility of A rises in the background, in the World...both together are sufficient condition thus cause takes place. Otherwise cause would not take place, and there would be suspension of action...


Yes, necessary causes can be jointly, or not jointly, sufficient for their effects. So that's almost exactly what I said.....except that you just mean "...otherwise, without these jointly sufficient conditions each of which are necessary, the effect would not take place, and there would be a suspension of action." The action of doing P is an effect, not a cause.

Fil. Albuquerque;161807 wrote:
Movement has a Cause ! (movement, energy transfer, needs explanation) (One explanation to One fact, not possibility for several)

Anyway I get your point well enough...


I don't know why an event can't have multiple explanations for its taking place. It can have many as well as one. If there are multiple necessary causes which together act as a jointly sufficient cause for an effect, then there are multiple explanations for that effect. Not only that! This is also true: Though each cause is necessary, they are jointly unecessary for an effect since an entirely different set of jointly sufficient causes could have caused the very same effect.

There are numerous possibilities in real world non-voluntary examples such as a rock breaking a window, or an electrical short circuit burning down a house. Nothing I am saying goes contrary to the spirit of determinism.
 
ughaibu
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 01:19 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;161790 wrote:
This very same fallacy happens when people say that future facts are "fixed," implying what will happen, happens necessarily. So if it is true today that you will jump 1 foot tomorrow, it follows that you have no choice but to jump 1 foot tomorrow when the time comes because this event "must" happen.
As far as I can tell, you haven't shown any way in which you can realise any alternative possibility. So, you seem to be defending the bizarre notion that an agent has free will whenever that agent performs an action to which there is a merely logically possible alternative. The odd thing is that Kennethamy is so enthusiastically slapping your back about this, because your position is at odds with one of his own favourite examples, the victim of armed robbery.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 01:30 pm
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;161817 wrote:
As far as I can tell, you haven't shown any way in which you can realise any alternative possibility. So, you seem to be defending the bizarre notion that an agent has free will whenever that agent performs an action to which there is a merely logically possible alternative.


Why are you stuck on logical possibility? Like I said, if X is not physically possible, then X is not realisable. But if X is not is realisable, then X can still be physically possible because what is realisable is a subset of what is physically possible. So your own distinction between physical possibility and realisable possibility actually undermines your fatalist view instead of supporting it.

ughaibu;161817 wrote:
The odd thing is that Kennethamy is so enthusiastically slapping your back about this, because your position is at odds with one of his own favourite examples, the victim of armed robbery.


I don't know that example. But I seriously doubt I am at odds with anything he says if we are in such agreement on everything else in this thread. :perplexed: Maybe its better that you should let Ken speak for himself?
 
ughaibu
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 01:37 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;161819 wrote:
Like I said, if X is not physically possible, then X is not realisable. But if X is not is realisable, then X can still be physically possible because what is realisable is a subset of what is physically possible.
You have stated that free will is the ability to have done otherwise. Doing is enacting, this means that under your definition alternatives must be realisable. That everything realisable is physically possible doesn't imply that everything physically possible is realisable.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 01:42 pm
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;161820 wrote:
That everything realisable is physically possible doesn't imply that everything physically possible is realisable.


Sure, but that's not what I said. I said, if what is realisable is a subset of what is physically possible, then what is realisable is also physically possible. So any thing that is not realisable does not entail that that thing is not physically possible. So according to the logic of it, if something is not realisable, then it can still very well be physically possible. Likewise, physical possiblity is a subset of logical possibility. Therefore, anything that is physically possible is also logically possible. Pay attention to what "subset of possibility" means.

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 02:16 PM ----------

Here is the problem with your distinction: you don't even define what "realisable" means. For instance, here are the definitions of physical and logical possibility:

X is logically possible: X does not violate the law of non-contradiction
X is physically possible: X does not violate the laws of physics.
x is realisable: uh oh....no definition.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 02:27 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;161790 wrote:
Same with Amperage's misuse of the Principle of Bivalence for future tense propositions: He thinks that "Necessarily, all future tense propositions are true or false, but not both" logically implies, "All future tense propositions are necessarily true or necessarily false, but not both." This is another modal fallacy.
No I don't. And for about the 5th time stop putting words in my mouth. Seriously man.

The POB states that future tense propositions have truth values before the actual event. Either true or false but not both and not neither.

Therefore it follows that it cannot just keep switching back and forth until the moment of the actual event. It cannot change truth values.

Thus the truth or falsity of the proposition cannot be made to be wrong.

If you will wear a blue shirt tomorrow is true then you will wear a blue shirt whether by your own choice or by compulsion, or randomness. But one way or another you will end up with a blue shirt on.

This is straight from the POB.

Thus the outcome is fixed while still maintaining your free will

If you espouse the POB for future tense propositions then you are espousing to fatalism. End of story.

Nothing has to happen by necessity for fatalism to still be true.
Things just have to happen the way they always will.

Hell the POB is where logical fatalism was formulated I think, or at least what lead Aristotle to dive into the problem. And like a said without some screwy workaround the POB by itself as it stands, implies fatalism. Aristotle's solution was to claim the POB didn't hold for future tense propositions.

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 03:29 PM ----------

why you guys insist on claiming the POB holds for future tense propositions is beyond me(especially atheists), but since ya'll do, you must accept the consequences of all that it implies(ie. fatalism-->which DOES NOT have to say Q will happen necessarily, just that Q WILL happen)

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 03:33 PM ----------

please someone explain to me why fatalism necessarily must say that Q will happen necessarily because I see no good reason to think this at all.

Q will happen by any means....even free will.
if it is your fate for Q to happen.....it will happen. By free will or by some other means.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 02:36 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;161831 wrote:
No I don't. And for about the 5th time stop putting words in my mouth. Seriously man.

The POB states that future tense propositions have truth values before the actual event. Either true or false but not both and not neither.

Therefore it follows that it cannot just keep switching back and forth until the moment of the actual event. It cannot change truth values.

Thus the truth or falsity of the proposition cannot be made to be wrong.

If you will wear a blue shirt tomorrow is true then you will wear a blue shirt whether by your own choice or by compulsion, or randomness. But one way or another you will end up with a blue shirt on.

This is straight from the POB.

Thus the outcome is fixed while still maintaining your free will

If you espouse the POB for future tense propositions then you are espousing to fatalism. End of story.

Nothing has to happen by necessity for fatalism to still be true.
Things just have to happen the way they always will.

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 03:29 PM ----------

why you guys insist on claiming the POB holds for future tense propositions is beyond me(especially atheists), but since ya'll do, you must accept the consequences of all that it implies(ie. fatalism-->which DOES NOT have to say Q will happen necessarily, just that Q WILL happen)

---------- Post added 05-08-2010 at 03:33 PM ----------

please someone explain to me why fatalism necessarily must say that Q will happen necessarily because I see no good reason to think this at all.

Q will happen by any means....even free will.
if it is your fate for Q to happen.....it will happen. By free will or by some other means.


This has come down to a merely verbal dispute with you, nothing more. Reply to my previous thread to you, and then we'll talk. Until you give a precise definition of fatalism and determinism, I have no reason to accept these unspecified distinctions. Here:

Amperage;161483 wrote:
it doesn't interfere with free will. That's the whole point. Just as fatalism doesn't interfere with free will.


Is fatalism just determinism then? Are you collapsing the distinction? What do you call the doctrine which says everything is going to happen necessarily? I take that to mean "everything is fated." They are one and the same. I've been taught throughout my philosophical career that determinism says,

P-->Q
P
So, Q

And fatalism says,

N (P-->Q)

which is logically equivalent to,

N (P)--> N (Q)
N (P)
So, N (Q)

So I don't understand what you are doing. Are you reversing this distinction, or what? It is incredibly uncharitable denying an age-old distinction without telling anyone why. What do you think is determinism? What do you think is fatalism?

Amperage;161483 wrote:
Seriously what is it with you and the modal fallacy? As I said, nothing that I am discussing has to do with necessity. Nothing.


That's what fatalism is. You just groundlessly deny this without reason.

Amperage;161483 wrote:
There is no MUST....you just will. If you freely choose to put on a green shirt something will happen(maybe someone will break in and steal all your non-blue shirts) which will either force you or convince you to put on a blue shirt instead. Or maybe you'll close your eyes and randomly pick a blue shirt. You cannot negate the truth value of the the proposition. Not because of necessity but because of anything.


I guess you could put it that way--someone "forcing" or circumstances "dictating" the action X. This just goes without saying. We are compelled to do things all the time by our environment. But saying "you cannot negate the truth value of the propostion" is incredibly misleading, because all of our unimpeded freely chosen acts just do determine the true value of a propostion. True and false propositions don't "force someone to will X rather than Y." To think otherwise is a category mistake. And you've been implying this nonsense from the start, whether or not you meant to.

Like I said before, "X will do" is just the future tense of the present tense "X is doing." Now what is your point? You must recognize even if "I will wear a blue shirt tomorrow" is true that "I could wear a green shirt tomorrow" is still also true. If you deny this, then you are committed to believing free will is not possible given the truth of determinism.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 02:46 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;161836 wrote:
Is fatalism just determinism then? Are you collapsing the distinction? What do you call the doctrine which says everything is going to happen necessarily? I take that to mean "everything is fated." They are one and the same. I've been taught throughout my philosophical career that determinism says,

P-->Q
P
So, Q

And fatalism says,

N (P-->Q)

which is logically equivalent to,

N (P)--> N (Q)
N (P)
So, N (Q)

So I don't understand what you are doing. Are you reversing this distinction, or what? It is incredibly uncharitable denying an age-old distinction without telling anyone why. What do you think is determinism? What do you think is fatalism?



That's what fatalism is. You just groundlessly deny this without reason.



I guess you could put it that way--someone "forcing" or circumstances "dictating" the action X. This just goes without saying. We are compelled to do things all the time by our environment. But saying "you cannot negate the truth value of the propostion" is incredibly misleading, because all of our unimpeded freely chosen acts just do determine the true value of a propostion. True and false propositions don't "force someone to will X rather than Y." To think otherwise is a category mistake. And you've been implying this nonsense from the start, whether or not you meant to.

Like I said before, "X will do" is just the future tense of the present tense "X is doing." Now what is your point? You must recognize even if "I will wear a blue shirt tomorrow" is true that "I could wear a green shirt tomorrow" is still also true. If you deny this, then you are committed to believing free will is not possible given the truth of determinism.
No fatalism is not just determinism. Why? Because fate can be achieved by free will or by determinism or by random chance. If you are fated to do Q this does not negate the fact you may WANT to do Q. Why would anyone think it would?

What do I call the doctrine that everything will happen necessarily? Well that depends on if your talking about logical necessity or physical necessity. If you're talking logical necessity then there is no such doctrine. If your talking about physical necessity then I call that hard-determinism.

Free will implies that I can do things which are not necessitated in any way shape or form.

Fate can be accomplished through free will or through determinism or by any other means under the sun.

Next, Do you think if Q will happen necessarily that negates the fact that I can freely choose Q? I would say no, it does not.

I think I have explained why again and again. I don't think fatalism negates free will anymore than Newcomb's paradox does or God's foreknowledge, or the POB does. All of which deal with fixed futures.

Determinism, to me, means 1 of two things......a determinist who is an incompatabilist would say that everything that happens, does so due to physical necessity.

A Determinist who is a compatiblist would say almost everything that happens does so due to physical necessity. The main exception being human unforced choices.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sat 8 May, 2010 02:54 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;161831 wrote:
No I don't. And for about the 5th time stop putting words in my mouth.


But you say things like this: "Because there is a truth value for a future tense proposition in the past, no one can change that truth value in the future"--directly implying no one has any control over the future. But this is false. We do, in fact, have control over our future actions. So the way you choose your words is incredibly misleading.

Amperage;161831 wrote:
The POB states that future tense propositions have truth values before the actual event. Either true or false but not both and not neither.

why you guys insist on claiming the POB holds for future tense propositions is beyond me


Wait, so does the POB say or not say that the future tense propositions have a truth value? If it does, then you are contradicting the POV. If the POB does not say this, then you are saying something false about the POB.

Amperage;161831 wrote:
please someone explain to me why fatalism necessarily must say that Q will happen necessarily because I see no good reason to think this at all.


We don't see any good reason to think otherwise. What do you think compatibilisim is all about? It is the attempt to arrive at a compromise between determinism and free will be rejecting fatalist implications. Fast, Ken, and myself have been criticizing your misunderstandings of this philosophical landsape for too many posts now....It's getting old.
 
 

 
Copyright © 2024 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.05 seconds on 11/16/2024 at 10:20:17