@Extrain,
Extrain;160392 wrote:But that's a tautology. You are saying if fatalism is true then I cannot avoid X. But that's just a definition of what fatalism is, not a reason for thinking fatalism is true. X is my fate if and only if X is my fate. This is a necessary truth. But the question is whether X is avoidable, or X is my fate, or X is a necessary truth. I see no reason to think "I will die in a car wreck today" is necessarily true even if I do, in fact, die in a car wreck today. We have more reason to think it is a contingent truth than a necessary truth.
I can set it up this way, too:
If fatalism is true, then event X cannot be avoided. X has been avoided, so fatalism is false. How is one supposed to argue against it other than suggest there is no good reason for thinking we cannot avoid X? I thought that's what you've been doing.
Fatalism is one of those empty philosophical theses which fail to say anything if it were true because it doesn't say whether X, Y, or Z is my fate. Why should I take it seriously? It is compatible with anything you say against it. That's not a virtue, but a vice. It is the same problem G.E. Moore had with skepticism. So to say "fatalism is true" is to beg the question just as saying "we are brains in a vat is true" begs the question.
What I said is that is one sense of "fatalism". The trivial sense. And, it is the sense people are talking about when they hold that fatalism is true, or when they say that fatalism is not falsifiable. On the other hand, there is another, non-trivial sense of "fatalism" in which it is pretty clearly false. It is the sense in which people like to say, whatever happens has to happen. That is false. The trivial sense in which "fatalism" is true is the sense in which people like to say that necessarily, whatever happens, will happen (
che sera, sera, as the old Italian saying and song goes). As you say, that is a tautology. But the other sense of "fatalism" the sense in which it is false, is of course, no tautology.
But, not distinguishing between these two senses of "fatalism" is the error, since failing to do so leads to thinking that "fatalism" in the non-trivial sense is true because "fatalism" in the trivial (tautological) sense is true. It is just a confusion of senses: Which leads to a false philosophical view. As I said, this is only an application of Hume's fork. I was simply showing why fatalism is false, and the aetiology of the false belief in fatalism. Wittgenstein style. Once we distinguish between the two senses of "fatalism" the issue dissolves.
But more, this analysis to show that fatalism is false gives the lie to those who are persuaded that philosophical problems are undecidable, or that philosophical views are unfalsifiable. Philosophical analysis here has shows that the problem of fatalism (a philosophical problem if ever there was one) is not undecidable. It can be clearly shown that fatalism in any non-trivial sense, is false. And even more convincing, why some have thought it true. It is comparable to how, in chemistry, the theory of phlogiston was shown to be false, and why some chemists thought the theory was true.