The Fatal Paradox

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kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 02:48 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;160923 wrote:
thank you fast this is precisely what I was getting at but kenneth failed to answer and instead took the opportunity to criticize my analogy. If we presuppose hard determinism then everything that happens does so necessarily(physical necessity that is).


But it isn't that your analogy is wrong-or right. It is that if it is meant as an argument, it is a bad argument. I suppose that if people were like dominoes, then people would not have free will. But, have you any reason to suppose that people are like dominoes? If you have, you have not presented any. Perhaps you want to say that if hard determinism is true, then people are like dominoes. Fine, Let us suppose that is true. But what is supposed to follow from that? I don't get the point of the analogy, is what I am saying.

Now, about fast's post. I suppose that it can be argued that if nothing that happens to us is what is up to us, then we do not have free will, since we could not have done otherwise than we actually did do. And fatalism, as I understand it, is the doctrine that nothing that happens to us is up to us, and so, fatalism implies we do not have free will. I agree. Is there any more?
 
Amperage
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 02:50 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160929 wrote:
But it isn't that your analogy is wrong-or right. It is that if it is meant as an argument, it is a bad argument. I suppose that if people were like dominoes, then people would not have free will. But, have you any reason to suppose that people are like dominoes? If you have, you have not presented any. Perhaps you want to say that if hard determinism is true, then people are like dominoes. Fine, Let us suppose that is true. But what is supposed to follow from that? I don't get the point of the analogy, is what I am saying.

Now, about fast's post. I suppose that it can be argued that if nothing that happens to us is what is up to us, then we do not have free will, since we could not have done otherwise than we actually did do. And fatalism, as I understand it, is the doctrine that nothing that happens to us is up to us, and so, fatalism implies we do not have free will. I agree. Is there any more?
I am trying to get you to see that the implications of hard determinism are that what happens does so by physical necessity. The analogy is not meant as an argument but a means of getting you to see that without free will we are powerless to effect the chain of events that is taking place. If we're the 5th domino and the first one falls, assuming they've been set up correctly, we'll eventually fall due to the 4th and we will in turn make the 6th domino fall so to speak.

If you can agree with that then I can move on with the rest of my argument......or rather, the distinction I'm specifically trying to draw attention to between hard-determinism and fatalism
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:03 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160920 wrote:


LOL! What does this mean? Again, what does causation have to do with the truth-functional connectives "and," "or," "-->," "<-->," "not," and the notions of validity and logical entailment?????

"A" and "B" represent truth-valuable propositions which can be true or false. And the truth-value of the conjunction "A and B" is a direct function of the truth values of its parts, namely, A and B, respectively. If the conjunction "A and B" is true, then it logically follows "A" is true and "B" is true, regardless of what those propositions are.

Fil. Albuquerque;160920 wrote:
So the validity of an specific argument is independent of the terms regarding the very same argument ? Shinning brilliant and majestic your reasoning !


What "reasoning"? You are spitting against the wind, pal.

Fil. Albuquerque;160920 wrote:
What is to be, or not to be as part or apart of the empirical world, shown to be proven ?


Didn't Shakespeare say something similar?

Fil. Albuquerque;160920 wrote:
you sound more and more like a parrot !


I see you cowardly result to bashing people when your ignorance is directly and rightly challenged. Go back to school. Your attacks are empty.

Fil. Albuquerque;160920 wrote:
Do insults and some formal knowledge give you the impression of being intelligent ? How old are you ?


Old enough to realize I am wasting my time.

Fil. Albuquerque;160920 wrote:
Oh and do me a last favour, pick the toilet comment and throw yourself in it, my patience has limits to this kind of idiocy !


whatever. You haven't even said one thing that was correct or even made any sense.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:14 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;160931 wrote:
I am trying to get you to see that the implications of hard determinism are that what happens does so by physical necessity. The analogy is not meant as an argument but a means of getting you to see that without free will we are powerless to effect the chain of events that is taking place. If we're the 5th domino and the first one falls, assuming they've been set up correctly, we'll eventually fall due to the 4th and we will in turn make the 6th domino fall so to speak.

If you can agree with that then I can move on with the rest of my argument......or rather, the distinction I'm specifically trying to draw attention to between hard-determinism and fatalism


But that is not just the implication of hard determinism. That is the implication of determinism. Determinism says that all events (with the exception of micro-events) are physically necessitated. Who (save, perhaps ughaibu) would deny that? If one domino falls on another, the second is going to fall, of course, unless some other countervailing causes intervene. It is because of this latter consideration that all statements of the form, A causes B, have attached to them ceterus paribus clauses.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:17 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160945 wrote:
But that is not just the implication of hard determinism. That is the implication of determinism. Determinism says that all events (with the exception of micro-events) are physically necessitated. Who (save, perhaps ughaibu) would deny that? If one domino falls on another, the second is going to fall, of course, unless some other countervailing causes intervene. It is because of this latter consideration that all statements of the form, A causes B, have attached to them ceterus paribus clauses.
but soft determinism or a compatibilist or even a free will incompatibilist would not say that a persons is bound by physical necessity in terms of their actions so I don't see how you can say that. I am specifically making a case against hard determinism for that reason
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:22 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;160937 wrote:
"A" and "B" represent truth-valuable propositions which can be true or false. And the truth-value of the conjunction "A and B" is a direct function of the truth values of its parts, namely, A and B, respectively. If the conjunction "A and B" is true, then it logically follows "A" is true and "B" is true, regardless of what those propositions are.


NO !

A and B are interdependent. If they are to relate and not to transcend each other, A recognizes B as not A, and therefore by assimilating the state of B can tell itself as A1. The opposite is also true, therefore B2 !

A alone or B alone are not to be but true...A and B, AB, are already different from A or B alone...they incorporate the other dialectically.

What they are as a conjunction, they are in relation to each other, and relative to each other, and dependent on each other...Logic is intrinsic to reality as a Whole and not something apart...of course this is not formal logic...but it was never meant to be.

I am not your PAl, look elsewhere...
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:33 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160953 wrote:
NO !

A and B are interdependent. If they are to relate and not to transcend each other, A recognizes B as not A, and therefore by assimilating the state of B can tell itself as A1. The opposite is also true, therefore B2 !

A alone or B alone are not to be but true...A and B, AB, are already different from A or B alone...they incorporate the other dialectically.


Oh my.....I can't believe you just denied the fundamental logical truths of first-order propositional calculus. Get a life.

Whatever "transcend," "interdependent," and "A and B recognizing eachother," "Assimilating the state of B," "incorporating eachother dialectically," and "A1 and B2" are supposed to mean, Logic sure as sh*t doesn't say anything like this. None of this makes any sense. Stop embarassing yourself. Lol. You've been reading too much Hegel.
Fil. Albuquerque;160953 wrote:
What they are as a conjunction, they are in relation to each other, and relative to each other, and dependent on each other


No. "A" and "B" are not "dependent on eachother" in a conjunction. "And" is a truth-functional connective. "And" is not a relation in logic. Relations in logic are either symmetric, anti-symmetric, reflexive, irreflexive, or transitive. Look it up, genius:

Equivalence relation - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:49 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;160960 wrote:
Haha! I can't believe you deny the logical truths of first-order propositional logic. Get a life.

Whatever "transcend," "interdependent," and "A and B recognizing eachother" is supposed to mean, Logic sure as sh*t doesn't say anything like this. None of this makes any sense.



No. "And" is a truth-functional connective. "And" is not a relation in logic. Relations in logic are either symmetric, anti-symmetric, reflexive, irreflexive, or transitive. Look it up, genius:

Equivalence relation - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


Here is why you could never be a Hard Determinist even if you want it to be.

I believe everything logic included is an a priori mix of things...its a simulation !
Relation between "objects" is implicit to the whole as a set from the beginning, and excluding Time as time is a "side effect"...
The "thing" Logic, regards all interrelations inside the set, the potential of the set.
Logic total set potential, algorithm, is a priori present in each variable describing their must be relation directly to its local pairs and indirectly to the whole set itself its nominal quantitative value...this also describes the difference in nature of each variable in relation to the others...
More, the meta variable its the potential of relation of a variable with its pairs in the set, and is intrinsic in the variable from the very first moment.

This is also a case for fatalism and even against true causation if one wants to see it as such...
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:57 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160972 wrote:
Here is why you could never be a Hard Determinist even if you want it to be.

I believe everything logic included is an a priori mix of things...its a simulation !
Relation between "objects" is implicit to the whole as a set from the beginning, and excluding Time as time is a "side effect"...the "thing" Logic, regards all interrelations inside the set, the potential of the set.
Logic total set potential, algorithm, is a priori present in each variable describing their must be relation directly to its local pairs and indirectly to the whole set itself its nominal quantitative value...
More, the meta variable its the potential of relation of a variable with its pairs in the set, and is intrinsic in the variable from the very first moment.


Another mindless word salad! Challenge: Show me a logical demonstration of what you just said using SET-THEORY. Wait, you don't know how?:eek:

What is a "nominal quantitative value" and what does that have to do with with determinism?

What is the difference between a "meta-variable" and a "variable"?

What is a "total set potential"?

How are "algorithms present in each variable"? What does that mean?

What are "local pairs"?

Logical connective - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Propositional calculus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
First-order logic - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Quantification - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Logical possibility - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Modal logic - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Possible world - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

kennethamy;160800 wrote:
One should never miss an opportunity to talk when keeping silent leads others to think one is a fool, and talking removes all doubt.


Remind me to never enter into a dialogue with this kind of nonsense again.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 04:03 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;160976 wrote:


I disagree with some aspects of set theory, and it has been an issue before, precisely because my Hard-Deterministic perspective is dialectical and a priori.

I believe in an Universal Set...I believe there are no empty sets. And I also believe that a set can contain itself always...plus, on top of that all, I am not by far a mathematician...and yes that is insane arrogance. Maybe we talk it again in a couple of decades !
See you around ! :poke-eye:

---------- Post added 05-06-2010 at 05:10 PM ----------

kennethamy;160945 wrote:
But that is not just the implication of hard determinism. That is the implication of determinism. Determinism says that all events (with the exception of micro-events) are physically necessitated. Who (save, perhaps ughaibu) would deny that? If one domino falls on another, the second is going to fall, of course, unless some other countervailing causes intervene. It is because of this latter consideration that all statements of the form, A causes B, have attached to them ceterus paribus clauses.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 04:12 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160978 wrote:
I disagree with some aspects of set theory, and it has been an issue before, precisely because my Hard-Deterministic perspective is dialectical and a priori.
Oh, really? Please, do tell me more! Which aspects of set theory do you disagree with, now, and why do you disagree with those aspects? And how is Hard-determinism "dialectical"? What does "dialectical" mean?

Fil. Albuquerque;160978 wrote:
I believe in an Universal Set...I believe there are no empty sets. And I also believe that a set can contain itself always...plus, on top of that all, I am not by far a mathematician...and yes that is insane arrogance. Maybe we talk it again in a couple of decades !
See you around ! :poke-eye:
I see. Now you run away when you can't put your money where your mouth is. You're so full of sh*t.:rolleyes:

Again, I would like to see a logical demonstration of what you just said using SET-THEORY.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 04:18 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;160981 wrote:
Lol! Oh, I see. Now you run away when you can't put your money where your mouth is. You're so full of sh*t.:rolleyes:

Again, I would like to see a logical demonstration of what you just said using SET-THEORY.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 04:21 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160983 wrote:


Yeah, ok....lol. Just admit it: you have no clue what the hell you are talking about, and you never did. Don't try to bullsh*t me. You can't even answer any of my questions. I warned you that you would embarass yourself if you kept it up.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 05:39 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;160984 wrote:
Yeah, ok....lol. Just admit it: you have no clue what the hell you are talking about, and you never did. Don't try to bullsh*t me. You can't even answer any of my questions. I warned you that you would embarass yourself if you kept it up.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 05:58 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;160948 wrote:
but soft determinism or a compatibilist or even a free will incompatibilist would not say that a persons is bound by physical necessity in terms of their actions so I don't see how you can say that. I am specifically making a case against hard determinism for that reason


If you are a determinist, then you hold that every event that occurs is physically necessary. If you are a hard determinist, you hold that because every event that occurs is physically necessary, that there is no free will. Compatibilists hold that every event that occurs is physically necessary, but that does not entail that free will is false.

To say that event E is physically necessary is to say that E. is subsumed under some law of nature, N. so that it is logically impossible that N. is true but E fails to occur. (Given, of course, that the initial conditions physically necessary for the occurrence of E. obtain).

With this in mind, make your case against hard determinism. I agree with you that hard determinism is false. But what is your argument against hard determinism?
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 06:14 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
- Reality is all there is.


You think? How insightful.

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
Logic therefore is not independent of Reality, but intrinsic to Reality.


Logic is a part of all there is, yes. And material implication is used to express causal relations between events. But that doesn't mean causal relations just are material implication relations. "Causal power," assuming there is such a thing, is something over and above logical relations. The relation of causality is specified by a set of intial conditions along with probabilitstic laws which express the likelihood of an effect following from a cause on a high order from 0 to 1. But all logical consequents follow from their antecedents with a logical necessity of 1. The effect, on the other hand, follows from the cause with a likelihood of .999__....or so it is now thought... So they are not the same.
Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
- Concepts as any other objects are subsets of a Universal set...


Wow, so concepts are part of the Universel Set of all there is? How informative!

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
...with intrinsic logic value...


What is "intrinsic logic value"?

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
...relating them to the Whole and to each other according to their position in the grid at any given moment in time space...


Wow, so logic relates concepts to "the Whole" in a spatio-temporal grid? How informative! Which logical relations do you have in mind, here? Can you give me some examples of logical relations that do this? Can you show me what that looks like, please?

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
...There is no difference between abstract and concrete objects...


Why? I thought concrete objects were physical and abstract objects were non-physical. So concepts are physical objects just like baseballs, atoms, and galaxies are physical objects? And physical galaxies and baseballs really exist in my head? That must really hurt. Your view sounds like either a Materialist or Idealist metaphysical monism--the view that there is only one ontological category of "being." But this doesn't matter. Most analytic philosophers are materialist monists today anyway. However, some like Chalmers and Searle--"neutral monists"--on the other hand, reject the mental/physical distinction altogether, and claim this dualist distinction of old is now outdated.

But the problem is that I don't even understand what your point is...still waiting...:whistling:

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
Logic is expressed in Time Space frame,


Really? wow.

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
or more abstractly it expresses an necessary order in the relation of the variables,


What "necessary order" are you speaking of? What "relation of the variables" are you speaking of? What are "variables"?

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
an algorithm which ultimately also gives rise to their form or qualitative identity ( to the variables)...


Sounds really smart and cool. What is "qualitative identity"? What is an "algorithm"? And how, exactly, does logic "give rise to the qualitative identity of variables"? What do you mean by this? Can you give me an example of how this is supposed to work in logic, please? And what do you mean by "gives rise to"?

Fil. Albuquerque;160996 wrote:
You are not obliged to accept it or to deny it, but to consider it partially or in its full meaning if you want to.


There is nothing remotely interesting, explanatory, or novel about what you are saying. So I don't see the point of all this mumbo jumbo. I simply don't care.

In any case, I want an explanatory answer to the following B.S you delivered earlier:

Fil. Albuquerque;160972 wrote:
Here is why you could never be a Hard Determinist even if you want it to be.

I believe everything logic included is an a priori mix of things...its a simulation !
Relation between "objects" is implicit to the whole as a set from the beginning, and excluding Time as time is a "side effect"...
The "thing" Logic, regards all interrelations inside the set, the potential of the set.
Logic total set potential, algorithm, is a priori present in each variable describing their must be relation directly to its local pairs and indirectly to the whole set itself its nominal quantitative value...this also describes the difference in nature of each variable in relation to the others...
More, the meta variable its the potential of relation of a variable with its pairs in the set, and is intrinsic in the variable from the very first moment.

This is also a case for fatalism and even against true causation if one wants to see it as such...

I will repeat:

Can you please show me a logical demonstration of what you just said using SET-THEORY? Thanks.

So why can someone not be a "Hard determinist" even if he wanted to? You didn't tell me why this is impossible.

What is a "nominal quantitative value" and what does that have to do with with determinism?

What is the difference between a "meta-variable" and a "variable"?

What is a "total set potential"?

How are "algorithms present in each variable"? What does that mean?

What are "local pairs"?


Fil. Albuquerque;160978 wrote:
I disagree with some aspects of set theory, and it has been an issue before, precisely because my Hard-Deterministic perspective is dialectical and a priori.
Oh, really? Please, do tell me more! Which aspects of set theory do you disagree with, now, and why do you disagree with those aspects? And how is Hard-determinism "dialectical"? What does "dialectical" mean?
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 06:48 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160796 wrote:
And on top of it, your question about the drunk shows you simply don't understand what is at issue.


No, it doesn't and I'd like to know why you think otherwise.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:04 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;161023 wrote:
No, it doesn't and I'd like to know why you think otherwise.


You don't really, do you? It will just make you feel bad,
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:05 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;161030 wrote:
You don't really, do you? It will just make you feel bad,


Nevermind, I keep forgetting you're just a troll.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:39 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;161032 wrote:
Nevermind, I keep forgetting you're just a troll.


See, that's what I thought. You don't want to feel bad. That is what I would reply too, if I were you. (But, with the grace of God, I am not). But just for laughs, I did look again at what you had written about your drunken friend:

When my drunk friend staggers home and the next day I ask his fate, I'm asking what happened to him, not what was inevitably going to happen to him. Yet, then you ask how could fatalism be false as if what happens to us is somehow inevitable.

And now I don't even understand it. What would you mean when you asked your friend that very strange question? You think I would ask him, "what is your fate" rather than, "what happened to you when you got home"? Why would I do that? What would you have expected him to reply?

I don't get your point- assuming you have a point. Could you say what it is you are attempting say? You realize, of course, that in English, the term "fate" is often used to refer to an unfortunate occurrence. Don't you? And not just something that occurs.

But, in general, ignoring that fact about how the term "fate" is used, it is clear that in philosophical contexts (like the one we are in now) the term "fate" is used to refer not to just something that happens (when it is used in that way) but in, I say, philosophical contexts, it is used to refer to an occurrence which is thought (by the speaker) to have been inevitable, and unavoidable. I say "thought" by the speaker, of course, since the speaker (like anyone) might be mistaken about whether the occurrence was inevitable. Notice, if the person is right, and the occurrence he calls fated is, indeed, inevitable, then, of course, it could not have been avoided. So, of course, if fatalism is the doctrine that whatever occurs inevitably occurs, and it is (were) true that whatever occurs is inevitable, then fatalism is not (would not be) false. Isn't that correct.

Now, your problem is?
 
 

 
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