The Fatal Paradox

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jeeprs
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 02:49 am
@Owen phil,
There is an old saying 'The wise man rules his stars'.


Perhaps fate can be understood as like a trajectory, based on the pattern of previous actions. Seen like this, it can be understood to be the outcome of causes that were set in motion a long time ago. The actual events or intentional actions which set them motion are long forgotten, but they still continue to bear fruit. Another way of thinking about it: individuals are often likely to act according to these tendencies which have become part of their character. Some criminals find it very hard to get on the straight and narrow because they are long habituated to theft. You might say of such a person 'you are destined to die in prison'. The criminal might however see the light and truly reform their character, in which case that fate has been avoided; they have 'cheated destiny' as the saying goes.

Of course in some cultures, there are other dimensions in this debate, insofar as there is a widespread belief in re-birth which means that an individual can harvest the results of actions committed in previous lives. It is generally understood that such causal chains are practically impossible to understand, but nevertheless such cultural attitudes often give rise to fatalism.
 
ughaibu
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 03:19 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160572 wrote:
Logic is an exercise of thought dependent on people who think and in their physical actual circumstances...
More to the point, logics are independent of reality, so the question of logical possibility doesn't come into it, apropos determinism. If determinism is the case, the state of the world at all times is globally specified by the state of the world any arbitrarily selected time, in conjunction with unchanging laws of nature.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 04:29 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160714 wrote:
If an event can be subsumed under a law of nature, then that event is physically necessary. But it does not follow from that, that if that event is a person's action or choice, that it cannot be a free action, done of the person's own free will. The reason for that is that even if the action can be explained in terms of its cause (and initial conditions) the explanation need not be in terms of compulsion. It is only if the person's action is compelled that it is not a free action, not just if it is caused. All compulsions are causes, but not all causes are compulsion. So, it is not because an action is caused that it is not a free action; it is because an action has a certain kind of cause that it is not a free action. Forget analogies about dominoes, since dominoes are not people, and cannot be compelled to do anything. Analogies (pictures) often interfere with thought because they are simplistic, and may leave out vital considerations. People are not: dominoes, puppets, actors reading a script, and so on. If they were, things would be different. But they are not. (You have already suggested a different analogy about the future being like an unread book, you recall. And as I pointed out, you would first have to show that the future was like an unread book, for the analogy to work. Now, you have to show that people (if their actions are caused) are like dominoes. My suggestion is that all of these analogies should be dropped unless you can show that their premises are true. For, unless they are true, the argument you want to make on their bases is unsound. Why not just deal with the issue, and forget the analogies, since they are of no help?).
if you read what I wrote I was presupposing hard determinism. Presupposing hard determinism is real then would you not agree that people are like dominoes?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 05:44 am
@Amperage,
Amperage;160754 wrote:
if you read what I wrote I was presupposing hard determinism. Presupposing hard determinism is real then would you not agree that people are like dominoes?


Like dominoes in what respect? That they are black and white? If you mean that if hard determinism is true, then people cannot help what they do, then no, I disagree. But if that is what you mean, then why not say just that, rather than talking about dominoes, since talking about dominoes only confuses the issue while making you think you have clarified or even settled the issue. Analogies are useful only to the extent they help you understand (the eye is like a camera, for instance). But useless when they don't help you to understand, and, of course, nefarious when they actually help you not to understand, but give you the impression that you do when you don't.

---------- Post added 05-06-2010 at 07:51 AM ----------

jeeprs;160742 wrote:
There is an old saying 'The wise man rules his stars'.


Perhaps fate can be understood as like a trajectory, based on the pattern of previous actions. Seen like this, it can be understood to be the outcome of causes that were set in motion a long time ago. The actual events or intentional actions which set them motion are long forgotten, but they still continue to bear fruit. Another way of thinking about it: individuals are often likely to act according to these tendencies which have become part of their character. Some criminals find it very hard to get on the straight and narrow because they are long habituated to theft. You might say of such a person 'you are destined to die in prison'. The criminal might however see the light and truly reform their character, in which case that fate has been avoided; they have 'cheated destiny' as the saying goes.

Of course in some cultures, there are other dimensions in this debate, insofar as there is a widespread belief in re-birth which means that an individual can harvest the results of actions committed in previous lives. It is generally understood that such causal chains are practically impossible to understand, but nevertheless such cultural attitudes often give rise to fatalism.


" Men at some time are masters of their fates: The fault, dear Brutus, is not in our stars, but in ourselves, that we are underlings "

Famous Julius Caesar
(Act I, Scene II)


But if fatalism is false, as you seem to agree it is, then why try to understand it at all? That what we do has causes, there is no doubt. But believing that means that fatalism is true is clearly wrong. Proof: All we do has causes, but fatalism is false. Therefore, the conclusion, fatalism, cannot follow from the premise, all we do has causes.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 05:59 am
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;160746 wrote:
More to the point, logics are independent of reality, so the question of logical possibility doesn't come into it, apropos determinism. If determinism is the case, the state of the world at all times is globally specified by the state of the world any arbitrarily selected time, in conjunction with unchanging laws of nature.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 06:29 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160763 wrote:
Of course is absurd to think Logic is independent of Reality...that is a very big statement to be done indeed,


Like all "big statements" ("big" means intolerably vague) it is both true and false depending on what someone or other happens to mean by it. It has no clear meaning of its own. It is like an ink-blot test. It means what someone or other interprets it to mean. No more, and no less. The kind of sentence that some people like to think of as "philosophical".
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 06:36 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;160737 wrote:
It is obvious you have no familiarity with propositional and quantificational logic because your point (whatever it is) is completely irrelevant to it. There are no "assumptions" required concerning empirical facts for the argument above to be valid:

All P are Q
X is P
Therefore, X is Q

This syllogism is logically valid in virtue of its form irrespective of what "man" or "mortal" means.

If you want to dispute first-order logic, then you need to dispute first-order validity and logical consequence, not the linguistic or empirical content of the words "man" and "mortal."

Please see both:
Syllogism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Logical connective - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


Wrong...plain wrong !!! Logic devices without defined meaning in the premisses are just empty sets of nothingness...You just dismiss things to quickly.

1 - Definitions on the nature of a concept can be infinite... (first problem)
2 - Logics nature has a being, a nature, which is limited to the scope and depth of the concepts at hand, and ultimately through them dependent on realitty, on concepts, their size, finite or infinite, their meaning, open or closed, their dynamics, relational, dependent or evolutive, or self shielded independent, and nominal...



Extrain;160737 wrote:
Your terribly mistaken word-fumble above is a scandal against first-order logic. Nothing you said above is even correct. :rolleyes:

First-order logic deals with both truth/falsity and validity/invalidity. It is a purely formal device which cashes out necessity, possibility, and contingency. And it is formal/non-empirical/a priori science of the rules of "valid thought" which has nothing to say about the empirical world.

So please take the time to learn some basic propositional calculus and quantification before you attempt to say anything about it. It's pretty sickening having to see you trash a purely formal discipline over and over again with your own ignorance.

Please see the following on the difference between logical, metaphysical, and physical possibility/necessity:

Logical possibility - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Modal logic - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Possible world - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Please see the following on basic first-order logic:

Logical connective - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Propositional calculus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
First-order logic - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Quantification - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 06:36 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160648 wrote:
I was talking about both, and pointing out that fatalism (the doctrine) is true in one sense, but false in the other.


Night Ripper wrote:
There is only one sense of fatalism.


kennethamy wrote:
Yes, I agree. What I wrote was that there were two senses of "fate". And it is the confusion between these two sense of "fate" which makes fatalism plausible. You don't understand the argument.


If I don't understand the argument it's only because your argument is in a constant state of flux. First you say fatalism is true in one sense and false in the other then you agree that fatalism only has one sense. If it only has one sense then how can it be true in one sense and false in the other? That makes two senses.

Maybe what you meant to say is that some people mistakenly confuse the two aforementioned senses of the word "fate" and thereby assume either one of them can imply the one and only sense of fatalism.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 06:48 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160767 wrote:
Like all "big statements" ("big" means intolerably vague) it is both true and false depending on what someone or other happens to mean by it. It has no clear meaning of its own. It is like an ink-blot test. It means what someone or other interprets it to mean. No more, and no less. The kind of sentence that some people like to think of as "philosophical".
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:01 am
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;160770 wrote:
If I don't understand the argument it's only because your argument is in a constant state of flux. First you say fatalism is true in one sense and false in the other then you agree that fatalism only has one sense. If it only has one sense then how can it be true in one sense and false in the other, that makes two senses.

Maybe what you meant to say is that some people mistakenly confuse the two aforementioned senses of the word "fate" and thereby assume either one of them can imply the one and only sense of fatalism.


The doctrine of fatalism is that what people do is inevitable (literally) in that nothing that happens is avoidable. So that whatever does happen must happen. Human action is inefficacious since whatever a person does (what will happen must happen).

This view is false. It is certain that sometimes, human action is efficacious, and that it is possible to avoid what would happen unless steps were taken to avoid it. Controlled experiments and studies show this, even if common experience didn't. Now, what is it that leads people to think that fatalism is true? It is that the term "fate" has two seense which are confused. 1. What does happen. 2. What must happen. People who think that fatalism (the doctrine) is true, do not distinguish between these two senses. They think that because whatever does happen, does happen ("Che Sera, Sera") which is, of course not merely true, but is a necessary truth, that whatever happens must happen. Which, as we have already seen, is clearly false. So, on this account, the belief that fatalism (that whatever happens must happen, and that human actions are inefficacious) is true is the result of a fallacious argument, that because whatever happens will happens, that whatever happens must happen. Clearly the conclusion cannot follow from the premise. One reason it cannot is that the premise is a necessary truth, but the conclusion is a contingent truth, and it is a theorem of the most accepted system of modal logic (S5) that a contingent conclusion cannot follow from a premise that is a necessary truth.

I hope this clears it up.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:07 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160775 wrote:
The doctrine of fatalism is that what people do is inevitable (literally) in that nothing that happens is avoidable. So that whatever does happen must happen. Human action is inefficacious since whatever a person does (what will happen must happen).

This view is false. It is certain that sometimes, human action is efficacious, and that it is possible to avoid what would happen unless steps were taken to avoid it. Controlled experiments and studies show this, even if common experience didn't. Now, what is it that leads people to think that fatalism is true? It is that the term "fate" has two seense which are confused. 1. What does happen. 2. What must happen. People who think that fatalism (the doctrine) is true, do not distinguish between these two senses. They think that because whatever does happen, does happen ("Che Sera, Sera") which is, of course not merely true, but is a necessary truth, that whatever happens must happen. Which, as we have already seen, is clearly false. So, on this account, the belief that fatalism (that whatever happens must happen, and that human actions are inefficacious) is true is the result of a fallacious argument, that because whatever happens will happens, that whatever happens must happen. Clearly the conclusion cannot follow from the premise. One reason it cannot is that the premise is a necessary truth, but the conclusion is a contingent truth, and it is a theorem of the most accepted system of modal logic (S5) that a contingent conclusion cannot follow from a premise that is a necessary truth.

I hope this clears it up.


Who said that human actions are inefficacious ??? they are efficacious and they have a causal chain...the problem rests on objective causality consideration and in the deep meaning of freedom. ...a fake word to were I stand !!!
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:16 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160777 wrote:
Who said that human actions are inefficacious ???


Fatalists. ........
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:21 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160775 wrote:
I hope this clears it up.


It doesn't because you just talked right over me instead of explaining why you are saying fatalism has two senses in one post and then agreeing that it only has one sense in another. Please explain that. Did you make a mistake or what? That's all I want to know. You can save your walls of text trying to explain something I already know.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:27 am
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;160785 wrote:
It doesn't because you just talked right over me instead of explaining why you are saying fatalism has two senses in one post and then agreeing that it only has one sense in another. Please explain that. Did you make a mistake or what? That's all I want to know. You can save your walls of text trying to explain something I already know.


If I did, I probably miswrote. I did not know you were not interested in the problem, but only in why I happened to mis-write. I should have known, of course. You always get right to the heart of the matter. And you always knew why fatalism is wrong, too. I was under the impression that you did not because you never indicated that. Another mistake on my part. I should have read your mind.
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:35 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160787 wrote:
If I did, I probably miswrote. I did not know you were not interested in the problem, but only in why I happened to mis-write. I should have known, of course. You always get right to the heart of the matter. And you always knew why fatalism is wrong, too. I was under the impression that you did not because you never indicated that. Another mistake on my part. I should have read your mind.


I'm still failing to see how fatalism even enters this discussion. According to your first post, we each have a fate in the sense that we each have something that happens to us. When my drunk friend staggers home and the next day I ask his fate, I'm asking what happened to him, not what was inevitably going to happen to him. Yet, then you ask how could fatalism be false as if what happens to us is somehow inevitable.

The first post in this thread is garbage. It either assumes we have a fate and then asks how we could avoid it (since by definition it's our fate) or it plays on an ambiguity between two sense of the word fate.

Either way, you're an extremely dishonest pedant. It's obvious you don't have any clear goals as you progress in a thread, in fact it's not really progess, it's just you sailing along from one position to the next, never allowing yourself to be pinned down and shown wrong.

It's disgusting and you should be ashamed of it.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 07:54 am
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;160788 wrote:

It's disgusting and you should be ashamed of it.


Oh, I am. Can't you tell? You are pretty silly. (And not so pretty). And on top of it, your question about the drunk shows you simply don't understand what is at issue.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 08:01 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
Wrong...plain wrong !!! Logic devices without defined meaning in the premisses are just empty sets of nothingness...


Whoever said logical devices don't have a defined meaning? What do you think "natural deduction" is? Semantic truth-tables for the logical connectives in propositional logic are definitions of these symbols.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
You just dismiss things to quickly.


You simply don't have a clue what are talking about.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
1 - Definitions on the nature of a concept can be infinite... (first problem)


Since when? Tell me one logician who says this about formal symbols in a formal language.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
2 - Logics nature has a being, a nature, which is limited to the scope and depth of the concepts at hand, and ultimately through them dependent on realitty, on concepts, their size, finite or infinite, their meaning, open or closed, their dynamics, relational, dependent or evolutive, or self shielded independent, and nominal...


What does this even mean? Explain.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:


Yes! It is self-evident in what you say or, rather--fail to say!

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
The biggest problem of Logic is defining X in the first place...what is to be X even before specificity ?


What is the symbol "x" in logic? Can you even tell me it's purpose?

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
what size is X a priori able ???


What does that even mean?

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
what is the scope of X ?


Either Ax or Ex.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
Can X be independent ?


Independent of what?

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
Is there independency on concepts an they are finite, perfectly circumscribed, objective, or are they dependent and infinite in nature, intrinsically correlational ?


What does this even mean? Nonsense.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
To put it better, are they continuum or discrete by analogy with space for instance ?


Huh? That didn't even explain what you said previously, but only succeeded in making your ideas even more confusing.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:


That's right. I can't read a person's mind through a wreckage of B.S. Try again.

Fil. Albuquerque;160769 wrote:
but then you storm with the obvious classical bla bla bla...give me a break !


Say something substantive about logic, instead of making a fool of yourself! Give me a break!
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 08:04 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;160799 wrote:

Say something substantive about logic, instead of making a fool of yourself! Give me a break!


One should never miss an opportunity to talk when keeping silent leads others to think one is a fool, and talking removes all doubt.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 08:07 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;160800 wrote:
One should never miss an opportunity to talk when keeping silent leads others to think one is a fool, and talking removes all doubt.


"Put up, or shut up" as the adage goes...
 
fast
 
Reply Thu 6 May, 2010 08:08 am
@Amperage,
[QUOTE=Amperage;160696]the question for me becomes, given hard determinism(determinism with NO free will), and given some initial condition, do all events thereafter or do they not happen necessarily(physical necessity)? And why?[/QUOTE]

There are things we do, and there are things that happen to us. Catching a Frisbee is something we do. Falling down, on the other hand, isn't something we do; instead, falling down is something that happens to us.

However, all that above assumes that we have free will. If we instead assume as hard determinists assume, then we'll need to assume that we have no free will. If there is no free will, then everything that we think we do isn't something we do; rather, it's something that happens to us. In fact, in a world with no free will (not even a smidgen), there is no human that does anything.

If aliens came down and put us all in prison, our freedom to do as we please would no longer be the case, but not even that scenario takes away all free will; even prisoners are free to read their books, so though they can't go and come as they please, it's not that they have no free will; instead, their freedom to do as they please is severely limited.

ETA: A possible objection is that getting into a car against my will is something I do, but that is not an example of choicelessness.
 
 

 
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