The Fatal Paradox

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Extrain
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 12:58 pm
@fast,
fast;161298 wrote:
Yes, all events are caused--past, present, and future. But, they are all antecedently caused. It is always a looking back principle. When Y happens in the future at a particular point in time, we will look to the past of that future point in time for causes.
Yes. And?

[QUOTE=fast;161298] Not all events are necessary events.[/QUOTE]I agree. I said that if all events are necessary events, then this is fatalism, not determinism. Did you not actually read my previous post? I actually believe that "No event is a necessary event" is true.

[QUOTE=fast;161298]If tomorrow a.m. a cat rubs against a lamp at 11:50.20, then the lamp may fall and break at 11:50.24, but it's not the case that the lamp must break. If it does, the cause will be antecedent to the breakage, and if it doesn't break, then the cause will still be antecedent to the breakage. We can look back and trace the cause to what happened at 11:50.20. Yes, I'm talking about tomorrow, but it's still a looking back principle because we're looking at a cause antecedent to an event. That it's a future event is irrelevant.[/QUOTE]Ok. Techinically, that's right. But if the cause consists of a set of necessary conditions which are also jointly sufficient for the effect, then the effect must follow, given those conditions. Like I keep saying, causation is conditional necessity, not absolute necesiity.

So just be sure not to equivocate determinism with fatalism. P=cause and Q=effect:

If P then Q
P
Therefore, Q

This is determinism. If P occurs, then Q has to occur. The occurence of P is sufficient (not necessary) for the occurence of Q.

If P then Q
P
Therefore, Necessarily Q

This is fatalism, and it is invalid. Just because Q occurs if P occurs, does not entail that if P occurs, Q necessarily occurs. This is the modal fallacy of fatalism. The fallacy is thinking that if P does not occur, Q must still occur--but this is not obviously true, and can easily be false, since Q might not occur at all.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 12:58 pm
@kennethamy,
Fil. Albuquerque wrote:
...were is the freedom even to will straight ? Probably the cause to my will will make me will randomly...


Sorry, I don't understand this. Let's start with "will straight". What does that mean? Does it mean not under influence? Sometimes I think I'm "not willing straight" after I've had 6 shots of Jameson. Is that what you mean?
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 12:58 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;161318 wrote:
So what.


Of course, some people may say "so what". But the problem is that each of these causes rests on, depends on, yet another cause. It's hard to see how, individually, any of these causes can come into to existence when their existence rests on yet another cause which falls under the same argument. The fact that such a chain of events does exist seems to imply that there is an event that is itself uncaused.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:00 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
If I am not the necessary condition of what I will, once it is random, were is my freedom in willing ???
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:01 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161323 wrote:
If I am not the necessary condition of what I will, once it is random, were is my freedom in willing ???


Say what? :perplexed:
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:05 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;161324 wrote:
Say what? :perplexed:
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:08 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161326 wrote:


I've gone over this in past threads. That there are biological/chemical processes which cause, does not mean we don't make choice. One thing has nothing to do with the other. With your logic, you mustn't believe we are conscious either. After all, consciousness is a phenomenon based largely on other processes, many, I believe, neural.

Nothing is what it is, since it can be further reduced? A door is a door, despite us being able to individually view the wood molecules under a microscope, isn't it?
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:08 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
lets say you intended to chose A rather then B on a pre-conscious level but since there is Indeterminism you end up willing B...were is your Choosing free ? Once it is yours but you were not its only cause given randomness ...
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:08 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161326 wrote:


I've already objected to this false dichotomy of micro vs. macro events. If we're going to persist in using these terms then I want to argue that micro-events can cause macro-events. A single atom splitting can cause a city to be destroyed. I hope we can agree on that at least. Now, what about macro-events such as those as "being able to freely choose x". If we randomly have free will, what's the problem?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:09 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;161310 wrote:
Right, legally, but morally? It's hard to see how your failure to execute your misdeed is somehow more morally right than if you had succeeded.


Yes. Your failure is what has been called, "moral luck". Plato discussed this issue, and argued that although you should be just as guilty for a failure as for a success, we do not see it that way because by making the failure less blameworthy, we are propitiating the gods. That is, we are thanking our lucky stars. There also may be a utilitarian advantage in no punishing failure (as much, for we do punish failure too. We punish attempted murder).
The utilitarian advantage may be that we encourage failure in such cases, and discourage success. And (maybe) influence the perp to be a little less efficient and intent on success.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:10 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Quote:
lets say you intended to chose A rather then B on a pre-conscious level but since there is Indeterminism you end up willing B...were is your Choosing free ? Once it is yours but you were not its only cause given randomness ...
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:12 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161328 wrote:
lets say you intended to chose A rather then B on a pre-conscious level but since there is Indeterminism you end up willing B...were is your Choosing free ? Once it is yours but you were not its only cause given randomness ...


If you chose it, that's where free will ends! There's no mystery to this thing, man. Stop mystifying it. You either choose to take a ****, or you choose not to take a **** (I realize now this probably isn't the best example, since you might eventually be compelled to take a ****) . It can't be simpler.

Just a little humor, guys, don't take the cursing seriously.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:15 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;161332 wrote:
If you chose it, that's where free will ends! There's no mystery to this thing, man. Stop mystifying it. You either choose to take a ****, or you choose not to take a ****. It can't be simpler.


But I just explain to you that you are not the only responsible for the outcome of what you came to choose
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:17 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161333 wrote:


I don't know if this will help you, but here it is anyway:

Zetherin wrote:
You're absolutely right that we can be compelled to do things and not know it. But we must make sure we do not overstate this. We must not, for instance, assume that all chemical processes occuring in our brain, or anywhere else in our body, are compelled. This is why I want to clarify. If we say an involuntary action, like a heart beating, is compulsion, it seems to me it's different than the being compelled we're speaking of here*. The being compelled I imagined we were speaking of here, must be within the confines of something we would say X person would do, or is capable of doing. For instance, we wouldn't say, "Jim is beating his heart", would we? His heart beating is not something we would consider as his doing. We would instead say, "His heart is beating", as if the heart were an independent entity. Here we begin to seperate Jim from his bodily function. Once we draw this seperation, I feel, we should stop applying compulsion and free will. It is no longer a consciousness we're speaking of; free will and compulsion are no longer terms which apply.

Now, how this relates:

It's been explored many times within this thread: Well, what if our actions boil down to biological/chemical processes, do we really then have free choice?

I believe this question confuses matters.

I think people are attempting to mix things which are considered capable of being done and experienced, with things which are not considered capable of being done or experienced. I think that each should be evaluated differently (although not always seperately), and the latter should not have the terms (or any variation of) 'compelled' or 'free' applied. We must evaluate what humans are capable of doing as being compelled or freely done only. When we begin to doubt that we can freely choose or be compelled simply because there are biological/chemical causes, we are confusing matters. In other words, the compulsion and free will come after the fact, and are usuaully experiential matters (except those times where we do not know we're being compelled - clarified above). They are part of an epiphenomenon related to consciousness. In the same way that we would say that something makes us happy, despite there being being chemical causes for why we are happy. But our being happy is still us being happy, no matter the cause. We must distinguish between the experience of us being happy and the causes which biologically led to our happiness. Or, at least I think we ought to. And actually, for a more stretched analogy, I think it's like questioning if we're conscious at all, simply because there are millions of neurological processes which are the cause of our consciousness. We don't question our consciousness or any other experience simply because there are causes, do we? So why free will?

And once again, just as a keepsake: Not all causes compel.

* I understand it's hard to know where to draw the line, though. Because, as noted, some involuntary actions we should apply "compelled" to. It's really tough to say sometimes.
 
Night Ripper
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:21 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161328 wrote:
lets say you intended to chose A rather then B on a pre-conscious level but since there is Indeterminism you end up willing B...were is your Choosing free ? Once it is yours but you were not its only cause given randomness ...


You are right that in the case of my choosing A, but due to indeterminism, I do B, I don't have free will. There are also cases of brain injury that can affect our actions.

Indeterminism doesn't cause us to randomly do B after choosing A because we wouldn't have evolved this far if it did. (See: Anthropic Principle)
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:26 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;161334 wrote:
I don't know if this will help you, but here it is anyway:


---------- Post added 05-07-2010 at 02:32 PM ----------

Night Ripper;161336 wrote:
You are right that in the case of my choosing A, but due to indeterminism, I do B, I don't have free will. There are also cases of brain injury that can affect our actions.

Indeterminism doesn't cause us to randomly do B after choosing A because we wouldn't have evolved this far if it did. (See: Anthropic Principle)



So how can you say Indeterminism is really indeterminism ?
precisely why we cannot set a random computer program to write a poem...
 
Extrain
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:34 pm
@Zetherin,
Fil. Albuquerque;161333 wrote:
But I just explain to you that you are not the only responsible for the outcome of what you came to choose


Zetherin;161327 wrote:
I've gone over this in past threads. That there are biological/chemical processes which cause, does not mean we don't make choice. One thing has nothing to do with the other. With your logic, you mustn't believe we are conscious either. After all, consciousness is a phenomenon based largely on other processes, many, I believe, neural.

Nothing is what it is, since it can be further reduced? A door is a door, despite us being able to individually view the wood molecules under a microscope, isn't it?


Yes, a set of necessary conditions ("causes") for an effect to occur are not always jointly sufficient to produce an effect. It is necessary that it is cold outside for it be snowing, but being cold outside is not sufficient for it to be snowing.

People too often equivocate on the necessary/sufficient condition distinction with respect to the topic of determinism.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:36 pm
@Extrain,
 
Extrain
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:39 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;161343 wrote:


duh...and? Causally necessary conditions are not always causally sufficient conditions. So just because it is necessary that X, Y, and Z hold before I can make the choice C, does nothing to "violate" freedom to choose C over B, D, or A. "C" is not a compulsory act.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Fri 7 May, 2010 01:40 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
I might determine that some things alone are not necessary cause, but a set of things to be necessary cause and sufficient also...once more correct me if I am wrong.
 
 

 
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