Defense of Freewill Against Determinism

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Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:05 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;152061 wrote:
Propositions can't be meaningless (remember, they're meaningful by definition - that's why they're propositions!). Sentences can be meaningless. And if you don't know what a meaningless sentence is, you ought to look one up, or just sit and think for a moment until you come up with one.
I can and certainly will agree to this. So the REAL issue I suppose is that we are mislabeling certain "sentences" as propositions which are clearly not......I then assert that sentences about future free willed choices are necessarily NOT propositions



Zetherin;152061 wrote:
But who said the value was fixed? No one. You're still confused. All that has been said is that it has a value; it is either true or false. If you don't think it is either true or false, then I suppose you think it is a meaningless sentence then. Do you think "I will wear a green shirt tomorrow" is a meaningless sentence? If so, why? It seems to have meaning to me.
this is getting into a semantical argument if I've ever been in one.

You are saying that it has A value exists but is not fixed and I'm saying that since the value is indeterminate before the fact it therefore becomes a meaningless assertion to claim it has A value.....by the fact that for it to contain a value implies it's fixed...unless you wish to claim that propositions can have a flux value...
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:13 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152074 wrote:
I can and certainly will agree to this. So the REAL issue I suppose is that we are mislabeling certain "sentences" as propositions which are clearly not......I then assert that sentences about future free willed choices are necessarily NOT propositions



this is getting into a semantical argument if I've ever been in one.

You are saying that it has A value exists but is not fixed and I'm saying that since the value is indeterminate before the fact it therefore becomes a meaningless assertion to claim it has A value.....by the fact that for it to contain a value implies it's fixed...unless you wish to claim that propositions can have a flux value...


The proposition has a truth value, of course, but what its truth value is depends on what happens in the world. So, it is not fixed. Whether the proposition, that it rains on August 14, 2010, at 3 PM in Central Park in New York City depends on what the weather is like on August 14, 2010, at 3 PM in Central Park in New York City. How can it be fixed?
 
Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:16 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;152082 wrote:
The proposition has a truth value, of course, but what its truth value is depends on what happens in the world. So, it is not fixed. Whether the proposition, that it rains on August 14, 2010, at 3 PM in Central Park in New York City depends on what the weather is like on August 14, 2010, at 3 PM in Central Park in New York City. How can it be fixed?
It can't......This is precisely what I've been arguing.

Other's have been arguing that such a statement is necessarily either true or necessarily false even today on April 14th as if the value is set.

I have been arguing that that statement is neither true nor false until August 14th, 2010 at 3PM in central park in new york city.....at which point it will acquire a value of either true or false depending on what actually happens.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:20 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152085 wrote:
It can't......This is precisely what I've been arguing.

Other's have been arguing that such a statement is necessarily either true or false even today on April 14th

I have been arguing the statement is neither true nor false until August 14th, 2010 at 3PM in central park in new york city


I don't think they have. I think you think they have. What I think they have been arguing is that it is true or false that it rains etc., but that whether it is true or false depends on what happen on August 14.
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:20 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152085 wrote:
It can't......This is precisely what I've been arguing.

Other's have been arguing that such a statement is necessarily either true or false even today on April 14th

I have been arguing the statement is neither true nor false until August 14th, 2010 at 3PM in central park in new york city


It is necessarily true or false today, as are all propositions, but it is not either necessarily true or necessarily false. There is a difference there. In symbols: 1. (∀P)□(TP∨FP) (For all propositions (P), it is either true, or it is false. 2. (∀P)(□TP∨□FP) (For all propositions (P), it is either necessarily true or necessarily false). (1) is true and (2) is false but people sometimes confuse them, as they confuse other propositions/sentences involving modal terms. I find that people are very ill equipped from nature to reason about modalities, and that people benefit greatly from learning to reason with modalities, that is, by studying modal logic.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:22 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;152088 wrote:
I don't think they have. I think you think they have. What I think they have been arguing is that it is true or false that it rains etc., but that whether it is true or false depends on what happen on August 14.
well then there has been a failure to communicate.

OK here is the formal explanation for what I have been saying.


Let (1/2) = unknown, indeterminate, null, or blank, meaningless to talk about, non existent.... whatever term you prefer.

Since ~(1/2) = 1
(justification for this is given in the file but I'll post it if necessary)(though it may seem obvious based on what 1/2 represents....~unknown = know, ~non existent = existent, etc.)


it follows:

Let P = I will wear a blue shirt tomorrow
Let the truth value of P = 1/2(for obvious reasons)

It then follows (P v ~P) is a true statement(since 1 OR'd with anything is still 1) while also maintaining that P is indeterminate before the fact.

v = OR

Thus the statement has neither true nor false value in and of itself until said time...

---------- Post added 04-14-2010 at 08:23 PM ----------

Emil;152089 wrote:
It is necessarily true or false today, as are all propositions, but it is not either necessarily true or necessarily false. There is a difference there. In symbols: 1. (∀P)□(TP∨FP) (For all propositions (P), it is either true, or it is false. 2. (∀P)(□TP∨□FP) (For all propositions (P), it is either necessarily true or necessarily false). (1) is true and (2) is false but people sometimes confuse them, as they confuse other propositions/sentences involving modal terms. I find that people are very ill equipped from nature to reason about modalities, and that people benefit greatly from learning to reason with modalities, that is, by studying modal logic.
the bold statement is what I've been arguing against....and seemingly the others have been arguing for.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:24 pm
@Emil,
Emil;152089 wrote:
It is necessarily true or false today, as are all propositions, but it is not either necessarily true or necessarily false. There is a difference there. In symbols: 1. (∀P)□(TP∨FP) (For all propositions (P), it is either true, or it is false. 2. (∀P)(□TP∨□FP) (For all propositions (P), it is either necessarily true or necessarily false). (1) is true and (2) is false but people sometimes confuse them, as they confuse other propositions/sentences involving modal terms. I find that people are very ill equipped from nature to reason about modalities, and that people benefit greatly from learning to reason with modalities, that is, by studying modal logic.


Yes. It is the slippage from 1 to 2 that is the mistake. And, it is true that some fail to notice the slippage. Does Amperage notice the difference between 1 and 2?
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:24 pm
@Night Ripper,
Amperage wrote:
the bold statement is what I've been arguing against....and seemingly the others have been arguing for.


The others? Like who?
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:24 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;152061 wrote:
Propositions can't be meaningless (remember, they're meaningful by definition - that's why they're propositions!). Sentences can be meaningless. And if you don't know what a meaningless sentence is, you ought to look one up, or just sit and think for a moment until you come up with one.



But who said the value was fixed? No one. You're still confused. All that has been said is that it has a value; it is either true or false. If you don't think it is either true or false, then I suppose you think it is a meaningless sentence then. Do you think "I will wear a green shirt tomorrow" is a meaningless sentence? If so, why? It seems to have meaning to me.


I may be wrong, but you seem to think that propositions are a kind of sentences, they are not. Propositions is what is expressed by a subset of sentences (cognitively meaningful, declarative sentences is the mainstream view, but I include questions too). I'm not sure it makes sense to say that a proposition is meaningful. What would that mean? Because of the ambiguity of the word "meaningful", it is hard for me to know what you mean unless you explain yourself more.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:26 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;152094 wrote:
The others? Like who?
I certaintly thought you, Night Ripper, fast, kennethamy, and without a doubt Fil. Albuquerque(course he's a hard-determinist so it's understandable from him) were all arguing from that perspective
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:26 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152090 wrote:
well then there has been a failure to communicate.

OK here is the formal explanation for what I have been saying.


Let (1/2) = unknown, indeterminate, null, or blank, meaningless to talk about, non existent.... whatever term you prefer.

Since ~(1/2) = 1
(justification for this is given in the file but I'll post it if necessary)


it follows:

Let P = I will wear a blue shirt tomorrow
Let the truth value of P = 1/2

It then follows (P v ~P) is a true statement(since 1 OR'd with anything is still 1) while also maintaining that P as indeterminate

v = OR

Thus the statement has neither true nor false value in and of itself until said time...

---------- Post added 04-14-2010 at 08:23 PM ----------

the bold statement is what I've been arguing against....and seemingly the others have been arguing for.


If you have been arguing against 2, there really was not reason to do it. No one held it. What was being held was 1, not 2. But do you see how 1 and 2 differ?
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:27 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152090 wrote:
well then there has been a failure to communicate.

OK here is the formal explanation for what I have been saying.


Let (1/2) = unknown, indeterminate, null, or blank, meaningless to talk about, non existent.... whatever term you prefer.

Since ~(1/2) = 1
(justification for this is given in the file but I'll post it if necessary)


it follows:

Let P = I will wear a blue shirt tomorrow
Let the truth value of P = 1/2(for obvious reasons)

It then follows (P v ~P) is a true statement(since 1 OR'd with anything is still 1) while also maintaining that P as indeterminate

v = OR

Thus the statement has neither true nor false value in and of itself until said time...

---------- Post added 04-14-2010 at 08:23 PM ----------

the bold statement is what I've been arguing against....and seemingly the others have been arguing for.


They have not. At least Ken has not.

Also, there was a slight error in my translation of the symbols. The first should be "For all propositions (P), necessarily, it is either true, or it is false."

---------- Post added 04-15-2010 at 03:29 AM ----------

kennethamy;152093 wrote:
Yes. It is the slippage from 1 to 2 that is the mistake. And, it is true that some fail to notice the slippage. Does Amperage notice the difference between 1 and 2?


I'm not sure. I find that generally, the only people that can distinguish between them are the ones that have studied logic and know that it matters very much sometimes where the operator is placed. That may be wrong but it is my impression. Logic makes the mind 'see' distinctions it didn't see before as it were clouded by words. Are you going to quote Wittgenstein now? Wink
 
Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:31 pm
@Emil,
Emil;152098 wrote:
They have not. At least Ken has not.

Also, there was a slight error in my translation of the symbols. The first should be "For all propositions (P), necessarily, it is either true, or it is false."

---------- Post added 04-15-2010 at 03:29 AM ----------



I'm not sure. I find that generally, the only people that can distinguish between them are the ones that have studied logic and know that it matters very much sometimes where the operator is placed. That may be wrong but it is my impression. Logic makes the mind 'see' distinctions it didn't see before as it were clouded by words. Are you going to quote Wittgenstein now? Wink
Then my apologies to all. Apparently I have been a victim of simple misunderstanding the point you were making.


the thing is if ya'll agree with the proof I just provided then saying a statement has a fixed value of true or a fixed value of false prior to the happening(exactly what bivalence states) is incorrect.


to say a proposition has value atemporal would then be incorrect <----I know for a fact this has been argued for. A proposition only becomes true or false after the fact...
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:33 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper;151842 wrote:
Today is simply shorthand for April 14th, 2010. Translate it to "April 14th, 2010 is Wednesday" and it is timelessly true. Problems that indexicals like "today" and "behind me" introduce are easily solved.


Not all of them, but some, yeah. "Today is april the 15th." using a simple indexical theory expresses the same as the sentence "At 3.32 april the 15th, it is april the 15th." which expresses a necessary truth, not a contingent one like it should.

---------- Post added 04-15-2010 at 03:35 AM ----------

Amperage;152100 wrote:
Then my apologies to all. Apparently I have been a victim of simple misunderstanding the point you were making.


the thing is if ya'll agree with the proof I just provided then saying a statement has a fixed value of true or a fixed value of false prior to the happening(exactly what bivalence states) is incorrect.


to say a proposition has value atemporal would then be incorrect <----I know for a fact this has been argued for. A proposition only becomes true or false after the fact...


There is still disagreement then. I didn't read your proof/argument, but I shall go back and do it. I don't agree, and neither does Ken, that propositions change truth values, from which it follows, that they don't change truth value after some fact happens. Propositions are necessarily true, or false. That is true for all times, obviously, as it is itself a necessary truth.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:35 pm
@Emil,
the funny thing is that I made 2 different arguments in various places throughout this thread as to why a proposition could actually have a set value prior to the fact and I could still have free will....just in case I guess
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:36 pm
@Emil,
Emil;152098 wrote:
They have not. At least Ken has not.

Also, there was a slight error in my translation of the symbols. The first should be "For all propositions (P), necessarily, it is either true, or it is false."

---------- Post added 04-15-2010 at 03:29 AM ----------



I'm not sure. I find that generally, the only people that can distinguish between them are the ones that have studied logic and know that it matters very much sometimes where the operator is placed. That may be wrong but it is my impression. Logic makes the mind 'see' distinctions it didn't see before as it were clouded by words. Are you going to quote Wittgenstein now? Wink


Yes, I must. "Philosophy is a constant battle against the bewitchment of the intelligence by language". And the main weapon in this battle is logic.
 
Amperage
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:37 pm
@Emil,
Emil;152101 wrote:
There is still disagreement then. I didn't read your proof/argument, but I shall go back and do it. I don't agree, and neither does Ken, that propositions change truth values, from which it follows, that they don't change truth value after some fact happens. Propositions are necessarily true, or false. That is true for all times, obviously, as it is itself a necessary truth.
I don't agree that propositions change truth value.....they don't have a truth value AT ALL before the fact...it doesn't change....it just doesn't exist beforehand
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:39 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152105 wrote:
the funny thing is that I made 2 different arguments in various places throughout this thread as to why a proposition could actually have a set value prior to the fact and I could still have free will....just in case I guess


I read your proof/argument but have no clue what it is supposed to mean, and so I don't agree with it (I don't disagree either because I have no clue what it is about).

Propositions about the future are just as much 'set in stone' as are propositions about the past. Pretty much everyone agrees that propositions about the past are 'set in stone'. Why then do they believe that propositions about the future are so different? I don't understand. (And I really dislike figures of speech in philosophy and I always mark them with apostrophes.)
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:40 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152107 wrote:
I don't agree that propositions change truth value.....they don't have a truth value AT ALL before the fact...it doesn't change....it just doesn't exist beforehand


We know that. But why do you say that? And propositions do not change truth value. The facts change. The proposition that it rains in Central Park at 3 pm does not change. What changes is the weather in Central Park. And, whether the proposition is true or false depend on the weather in Central Park.
 
Emil
 
Reply Wed 14 Apr, 2010 07:41 pm
@Amperage,
Amperage;152107 wrote:
I don't agree that propositions change truth value.....they don't have a truth value AT ALL before the fact...it doesn't change....it just doesn't exist beforehand


Right. In that case you think proposition bivalence is false, and that there are gaps in truth values, even for propositions! That is a minority view as far as I know. I didn't mean change as in going from one truth value to another. I meant change as in going from one truth state (be that true, false or none, or both) to another state. This is more broad. And following that you do believe that propositions change truth values.

A question for you is now. Do you believe propositions are abstract objects?

---------- Post added 04-15-2010 at 03:42 AM ----------

kennethamy;152110 wrote:
We know that. But why do you say that?


Yes, I never got to know. The only other person I know with this view is U. and is he terribly at explaining himself. Ken, do you know of any academic writing that argues for this position? I'd be interested to read about it because I can't think of any potentially rationally persuasive argument myself.
 
 

 
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