Did Samuel Johnson misunderstand George Berkeley?

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jeeprs
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 12:41 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;139225 wrote:
In fact, that confusion is the foundation of Idealism. It is the confusion of metaphysics with epistemology.


I have edited out what I had written here. I shall put the same point rather more mildly. I think that Berkeley's position has been put quite well by a number of contributors, and good reasons advanced for saying the Johnson did not understand Berkeley's argument. I don't think you have refuted those arguments. Thanks all the same.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 12:54 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;139210 wrote:




Consider it as follows: it is not an 'imaginary' stone in the sense of an object that only appears to be there, like a holographic projection, that is kicked with an imaginary foot. I can understand why one would imagine that, but that is not the argument. The argument is that when we kick the stone, we experience the sensation of kicking, and the sensation of the stone moving. We don't experience anything other than these sensations. Without sensations we can't be said to have perceived anything. So do we have two things? The stone and the sensation of the stone? Actually, we don't. Whenever we have contact with the stone, whether visual or tactile, what we have is the sensation of the stone.

Now is there a stone apart from the sensation? You always insist there is, but where is the stone? Why, there is it! And when you gesture towards it, and I look at it, I experience the visual sensation of seeing the stone, as we both do. It is no stone without sensation, and no sensation without stone.





Of course, we do not experience anything other than what we experience. That is a truism. But what we experience is not only sensations (which seems what you assume) but we also experience kicking a stone, namely, what causes those sensations. The term "experience" is ambiguous. It is not confined only to subjective sensations, as (again) you seem (along with Berkeley) to assume, but it may also refer to objects. When I ask someone whether he has ever had the experience of riding on a camel, I am not merely talking about his sensations. I am talking about riding on a camel, something that is not confined to his sensations. No one (except Berkeley and his followers) thinks that stones are sensations. Stones are what cause sensations when we kick them. They explain why we have the sensations we have when we kick the stones. Without the stones there would be no explanation for why we have the sensations we have. We know there is a stone we are kicking because we have the sensations we have when we kick it. But that is no reason to think that the stone consists of those sensations. In an earlier post I argued that at the bottom, Idealism is caused by the confusion between what there is, and how we know what there is. We know there is a stone because we have certain sensations. But why leap from that to the conclusion that the stone is the same as those sensations? What is sometimes called "the leap of faith" from the sensations to the object, is really the leap of logic from how we know about the object, to the identification of how we know about the object with the object itself.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 01:39 am
@kennethamy,
The question is, then, how do you separate the sensation from the stone? When you have the sensation of seeing the stone, is the stone one thing, and the sensation another? If you say yes, then what is 'the stone' in the absence of any sensation of it? And what is the sensation of it, the absence of any object?

From the First Dialog:

Quote:
Phil: We agree, then, that sensible things include only things that are immediately perceived by sense. Now tell me whether we immediately perceive:

  • by sight anything besides light, colours, and shapes;
  • by hearing anything but sounds;
  • by the palate anything besides tastes;
  • by the sense of smell anything besides odours;
  • by touch anything more than tangible qualities.

Hyl: We do not.
Phil: So it seems that if you take away all sensible qualities there is nothing left that is sensible.
Hyl: I agree.
Phil: Sensible things, then, are nothing but so many sensible qualities, or combinations of sensible qualities.

(This translation taken from Early Modern Texts - Philosophers and Philosophy Topics)

---------- Post added 03-13-2010 at 06:43 PM ----------

I don't think it is a 'leap of faith'. On the contrary, the leap of faith is that required by the assumption that there is a thing, other than that which is perceived, isn't it?
 
Humanity
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 04:07 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;139225 wrote:

Berkeley's intelligence (or lack of it) is not relevant to what he believed. He attacks materialism over and over again, and, it is his view, materialism is an illusion wrought by the Devil to conceal God from people, since when it is realized that materialism is false, and immaterialism is true, it will be clear that since the world is spiritual, and nothing material can be the cause of what is spiritual, only God could be the cause of the world. So, the immaterialism of the world is Berkeley's argument for God.
There are two important phases of Berkeley's argument. i.e.
1. Reality with the involvement of the mind,
2. God is the driver behind the mind.
Either phases, from a philosophical perspective, can stand alone.
If we do not agree with god, then we can replace (2) with Kant's transcendental logic of pure reason.


Quote:
Berkeley never held that material objects exist only as ideas in the mind I(whatever that might mean).
Berkeley held that there were no material objects.
There were physical objects, chairs, stones, stars, but their esse was percipi, (their existence was to be perceived).
Like all other Idealists, Berkeley confused what something is, with how it is known.
In fact, that confusion is the foundation of Idealism. It is the confusion of metaphysics with epistemology.
Berkeley did not hold that there were no material objects.
What he rejected was the philosophical realist concept of the absolute existence of matter independent of the mind. Note,

B Treatise wrote:

35. I do not argue against the existence of any one thing that we can apprehend either by sense or reflexion.
That the things I see with my eyes and touch with my hands do exist, really exist, I make not the least question.
The only thing whose existence we deny is that which philosophers call Matter or corporeal substance.


Here is B comment on absolute existence.

Quote:

24. It is very obvious, upon the least inquiry into our thoughts, to know whether it is possible for us to understand what is meant by the absolute existence of sensible objects in themselves, or without the mind.
To me it is evident those words mark out either a direct contradiction, or else nothing at all.
And to convince others of this, I know no readier or fairer way than to entreat they would calmly attend to their own thoughts; and if by this attention the emptiness or repugnancy of those expressions does appear, surely nothing more is requisite for the conviction.
It is on this therefore that I insist, to wit, that the absolute existence of unthinking things are words without a meaning, or which include a contradiction.
This is what I repeat and inculcate, and earnestly recommend to the attentive thoughts of the reader.


Berkeley was not confused with what something is, with how it is known. B realized that the human mind has a relationship between what is something and how it is known.
He realized that a thing cannot exists independently in absoluteness and waiting out there for human mind to know them.
Unfortunately for B, knowledge then was limited and he tried to use God to close the gap and failed (as we know on hindsight).

Kant came after and supported B theory that the reality of things has something to do with the mind, he introduced the concept of a priori categories.

At present, Kant theories is further supported by Physics, QM, neurosciences and cognitive neuroscience.
Based on these modern theories and with hindsight, it is obvious Johnson totally misunderstood Berkeley and was merely bashing a strawman.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 07:32 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;139246 wrote:
The question is, then, how do you separate the sensation from the stone? When you have the sensation of seeing the stone, is the stone one thing, and the sensation another? If you say yes, then what is 'the stone' in the absence of any sensation of it? And what is the sensation of it, the absence of any object?

From the First Dialog:


(This translation taken from Early Modern Texts - Philosophers and Philosophy Topics)

---------- Post added 03-13-2010 at 06:43 PM ----------

I don't think it is a 'leap of faith'. On the contrary, the leap of faith is that required by the assumption that there is a thing, other than that which is perceived, isn't it?


The stone is, of course, the stone, absent of any sensation of it. And the sensation is, of course, only the sensation, if there is no stone. That wasn't hard.

Well, we won't quarrel about which is the leap of faith. But, as I said, it does not seem to me to be a leap of faith to think that what you know is true is true. But it does seem to me a confusion to identity what is known with the knowing of it. "Esse est percipi" seems to me to be patently false.
 
SammDickens
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 08:21 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;139225 wrote:
But how I know I am dreaming is an entirely different issue from the point I made that when I am dreaming, what I am dreaming is happening is not happening. I agree that there is the problem of whether we can know whether we are dreaming (although I don't think it is a serious problem) but the fact remains that dreams are not reality, and that when I am dreaming I am in India, I am at home in the United States.

You can't possibly be as dense as you are pretending and still be capable of using the English language! But then, Johnson and Moore were obviously dense enough to misunderstand Berkeley. Why should I ask more of you? Because I think Berkeley's conclusions are flawed, but they are easy enough to understand, and I can't imagine why the three of you geniuses should remain so wrong-headed about him. I don't care if you ever agree with him, but I had hoped to help you understand what he is saying so you, unlike Johnson and Moore, would not go around kicking helpless trees and stones and showing off your hands as if you had answered some Zen koan and were worthy of enlightenment. I assure you that their idiocy with regard to Berkeley bears no tradition.

I told you that dreams are only a metaphor for Berkeley's description of reality. Reality is a dream from which you can never awake. I tell you that what you are dreaming IS what is happening, IS reality. When you are in bed having a dream in your sleep about riding an elephant in India, you are actually at home in the United States, but that reality too is of the nature of a dream and it is one from which you have no alternative waking state. Reality itself is like a dream in that it is all a collection of ideas (images) in the mind for which no external source exists, simply because our misconception that there is anything external is just another idea (image) in the mind. What we perceive as external to the mind is itself only an idea (image) internal to the mind.

Samm
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 08:41 am
@SammDickens,
Samm;139294 wrote:


When you are in bed having a dream in your sleep about riding an elephant in India, you are actually at home in the United States, but that reality too is of the nature of a dream and it is one from which you have no alternative waking state.

Samm


I examined my passport closely, but there was no stamp that indicated that I had been to India, so you must be wrong. Unless, of course, I got in illegally. And how would I have got there? I really don't recall taking a long plane journey.

If reality were a dream, then what would a dream be? (If all money was counterfeit, then what would counterfeit money be?)
 
SammDickens
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 08:58 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;139303 wrote:
I examined my passport closely, but there was no stamp that indicated that I had been to India, so you must be wrong. Unless, of course, I got in illegally. And how would I have got there? I really don't recall taking a long plane journey.

If reality were a dream, then what would a dream be? (If all money was counterfeit, then what would counterfeit money be?)

It's not that I am wrong but that you are unwilling to see anything beyond your own presumptions. You are a sorry excuse for a philosopher if you cannot see the opinions of others for the blinding glare of your own opinions. I give up on you, and will hereafter consider you an obstruction to meaningful discourse. Have fun with your sophistry.

Samm
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 09:03 am
@SammDickens,
Samm;139310 wrote:
It's not that I am wrong but that you are unwilling to see anything beyond your own presumptions. You are a sorry excuse for a philosopher if you cannot see the opinions of others for the blinding glare of your own opinions. I give up on you, and will hereafter consider you an obstruction to meaningful discourse. Have fun with your sophistry.

Samm


But have you a reply to my question, if reality is a dream, then what is a (real) dream? I guess not. I see the opinions of others (how can I help it). But they are wrong. In the meantime, why not answer my question, just for sport?
 
SammDickens
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 02:29 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;139313 wrote:
But have you a reply to my question, if reality is a dream, then what is a (real) dream? I guess not. I see the opinions of others (how can I help it). But they are wrong. In the meantime, why not answer my question, just for sport?

Reality has the nature of a dream insofar as it is internal, it is in the mind. If you want to think of it as a dream, think of it as God's dream; for Berkeley said that reality was created and maintained in the mind of God as an idea of an external world shared by all the mortal and finite minds of men. Our own bodies are part of that idea (or dream?) in the mind of God. Material existence is an illusion created by our participation in the universe envisioned in the mind of God and reflected in our own sensations. Real dreams are nothing more than they seem to us. We might say they are proof that we are made in the image of God. Or we might not. Especially if we don't believe in God. But of course, Berkeley was a Bishop. His philosophy only says that God's creation of the world (universe) and man is a mental process and that the reality God creates is a reality of idea, a reality of images in the mind. Now do me a favor and quit clinging to Johnson's silly argument. You must know that Johnson was wrong and that there are much better arguments for an external reality that is not an idea in the mind of God. Either way I have answered your question and need have no more to do with your sophistry.

Samm
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 03:19 pm
@kennethamy,
The courtyard is littered with stones, and although not much progress made, at least one long-held secret has been revealed.

KENNETHAMY IS JOHNSON!

And, as far as he is concerned, Berkeley is thoroughly refuted.

So let's move on.:bigsmile:
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 04:47 pm
@SammDickens,
Samm;139375 wrote:
Reality has the nature of a dream insofar as it is internal, it is in the mind. If you want to think of it as a dream, think of it as God's dream; for Berkeley said that reality was created and maintained in the mind of God as an idea of an external world shared by all the mortal and finite minds of men. Our own bodies are part of that idea (or dream?) in the mind of God. Material existence is an illusion created by our participation in the universe envisioned in the mind of God and reflected in our own sensations. Real dreams are nothing more than they seem to us. We might say they are proof that we are made in the image of God. Or we might not. Especially if we don't believe in God. But of course, Berkeley was a Bishop. His philosophy only says that God's creation of the world (universe) and man is a mental process and that the reality God creates is a reality of idea, a reality of images in the mind. Now do me a favor and quit clinging to Johnson's silly argument. You must know that Johnson was wrong and that there are much better arguments for an external reality that is not an idea in the mind of God. Either way I have answered your question and need have no more to do with your sophistry.

Samm


I'll ask the question one more time. If all of reality is a dream, then what are we doing when we are (really) dreaming? Dreaming the dream that is reality?
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 04:50 pm
@kennethamy,
Maybe we won't know until we die.

Christians believe that, or so it often seems.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 04:55 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;139384 wrote:
The courtyard is littered with stones, and although not much progress made, at least one long-held secret has been revealed.

KENNETHAMY IS JOHNSON!

And, as far as he is concerned, Berkeley is thoroughly refuted.

So let's move on.:bigsmile:


You are right. I believe that Berkeley was refuted by Johnson. Have you just discovered that?

But the following argument happens to be fallacious:

1. Johnson believes kicking the stone refutes Berkeley.
2. Kennethamy believes kicking the stone refutes Berkeley.
Therefore, 3. Kennethamy is Johnson.

The argument commits the fallacy of the undistributed middle term, and is, therefore, invalid. That appears to be your argument.

Attempting to philosophize without knowing logic is like attempting to row a boat without oars.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 05:10 pm
@kennethamy,
Thanks Kennethamy- I get the drift. I will award you a technical victory in the matter of identifying a valid syllogism. I really must go to the tip now so goodbye.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 05:14 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;139402 wrote:
Thanks Kennethamy- I get the drift. I will award you a technical victory in the matter of identifying a valid syllogism. I really must go to the tip now so goodbye.


What is "the tip", and what sort of victory is not technical? The kind that requires no reasoning? You seem actually offended by the very idea that Johnson might be right.
 
Humanity
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 08:39 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;139384 wrote:
The courtyard is littered with stones, and although not much progress made, at least one long-held secret has been revealed.
KENNETHAMY IS JOHNSON!
And, as far as he is concerned, Berkeley is thoroughly refuted.
So let's move on.:bigsmile:
I agree with the above.

Analogically, 'two dimensional' 2D JOHNSON could not understand 3D Berkeley.
A refutation based on 2D can never ever refutes a 3D theory.
2D JOHNSON's refutation was a strawman
2D KENNETHAMY IS 2DJOHNSON!
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 08:46 pm
@Humanity,
Humanity;139431 wrote:
I agree with the above.

Two dimensional 2D JOHNSON could not understand 3D Berkeley.
A refutation based on 2D can never ever refutes a 3D theory.
2D JOHNSON's refutation was a strawman
2D KENNETHAMY IS 2DJOHNSON!


My goodness. This has become a personal matter, and not a philosophical matter. No arguments, just nonsense. Who would have guessed?
 
Humanity
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 09:40 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;139396 wrote:
I'll ask the question one more time. If all of reality is a dream, then what are we doing when we are (really) dreaming? Dreaming the dream that is reality?
There seems to be a bit of denseness here.

When we state that the cup is half-empty and half-full at the same time, there is an obvious contradiction if we look at it from the logical perspective.
But it is true if we qualify which perspective we are using in seeing the half-emptiness and half-fullness.

Truth is based on how we define the rules and play the language games re Wittgenstein.

Similarly when we state that all of reality is a dream, this contradiction can be reconciled by referring to the rules adopted for the language games.
In the common sense perspective, a dream is a dream, reality is reality and they can never the the same.

With reference to the language games of Berkeley, common sense reality and dream are on the same continuum.
Common sense reality has stronger 'signals' while dreams has weaker ones.

With reference to the language games of general neuroscience and cognitive neuroscience, reality, dreams and hallucinations are also on a continuum and operate by one main core operation.
What we termed as common sense external reality has more additional special features that enable a higher degree of actuality.

In this sense, all of reality are dreams or even hallucinations.
Howeer, such a sentence should not be taken too literally, but in a philosophical forum we should understand that it is meant to highlight there is a greater meaning to some issue other than from the common sense perspective.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 09:50 pm
@Humanity,
Humanity;139447 wrote:
There seems to be a bit of denseness here.

When we state that the cup is half-empty and half-full at the same time, there is an obvious contradiction if we look at it from the logical perspective.
But it is true if we qualify which perspective we are using in seeing the half-emptiness and half-fullness.

Truth is based on how we define the rules and play the language games re Wittgenstein.

Similarly when we state that all of reality is a dream, this contradiction can be reconciled by referring to the rules adopted for the language games.
In the common sense perspective, a dream is a dream, reality is reality and they can never the the same.

With reference to the language games of Berkeley, common sense reality and dream are on the same continuum.
Common sense reality has stronger 'signals' while dreams has weaker ones.

With reference to the language games of general neuroscience and cognitive neuroscience, reality, dreams and hallucinations are also on a continuum and operate by one main core operation.
What we termed as common sense external reality has more additional special features that enable a higher degree of actuality.

In this sense, all of reality are dreams or even hallucinations.
Howeer, such a sentence should not be taken too literally, but in a philosophical forum we should understand that it is meant to highlight there is a greater meaning to some issue other than from the common sense perspective.


There is no contradiction about a cup being half empty and half full. In fact being half empty and half full entail each other. To say that a cup is half empty, and to say that the same cup is half full is (logically speaking) to say the very same thing. How could a cup be half empty unless it were also half full?

A little logic goes a long way.

The question remains. If reality is but a dream, then what is a dream?
 
 

 
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