@SammDickens,
Samm;144166 wrote:I very much beg to differ in that opinion, because it is in this that Berkeley's argument is immune to people kicking stones and raising their hands for display. Brains in Vats can kick stones and raise their hands; their bodies and their worlds are within their brains/minds/sensory experiences. Moore does not KNOW that he has any hands except the hands of his sensory perceptions, which are ideas in his brain/mind/sensory perception. Therefore his argument and actions are meaningless.
Johnson and Moore both miss the mark, even if Berkeley's conclusions are faulty because they miss the mark on Berkeley's aruments.
Samm
Good point, in "On Certainty" Wittgenstein had argued along similar line like yours.
He dig deeper into the fundamental and grounding of human nature.
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Let me be brief, Extrain.
Oh, puh - leeeaze!!!
Go dream your dreams and believe that your beliefs are beyond challenge. You're as intransigent as anyone here, and that says a lot.
I won't be bothered with you any more.
Samm
:a-ok:
---------- Post added 03-26-2010 at 09:44 PM ----------
Extrain;144006 wrote:Apparently he just means that when I am standing on an stone, I am Idea-standing on an Idea-stone in an Idea-space.
I seriously doubt Berkeley would want to say that Ideas are extended in actual space. So perhaps Ideas can be extended in the Space-Idea?
You might want to take into consideration these two things before you contend Ideas are spatiall extended--just for your own benefit:
(1) Special Theory of Relativity says Space is a "fabric" warped by matter itself, and that there is no such thing "Absolute" space.
(2) Though it hasn't been proven, many string-theorists today think that space is actually material, just like the normal things we take to actual material bodies.
If I can really cut the bread in space, then the bread is extended in space, and hence a material object. But bread and rocks can only be Ideas, and Ideas are not materially extended in space. So I doubt that's the conclusion Berkeley wants.
Berkeley readily agree to common sense realism.
Within that context the objects are in conventional space (not Kant or Physics).
Note Berkeley view of common things,
792 PHILONOUS. In common talk, the objects of our senses are not termed IDEAS, but THINGS.
From the above, Berkeley would not have called the stone he was standing on as an Idea-stone but just plain stone as Johnson would have
perceived it.
As such, Berkeley recognized external reality within the common sense perspective.
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But he was standing on an Idea-stone that was Idea-external to his mind's Idea-leg, Idea-body, Idea-brain within a not-so-common-sense perspective.
Are you now denying stones, bodies, and brains are Ideas?
As explained above, he was not standing on an Idea-stone.
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nah...you don't know what you're talking about.
If you do not agree, just say so.
You do not have sufficient evidence to make judgment on this.
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Ideas are just as real as material objects. Material objects are just as real as Ideas. But of course, Berkeley disagrees with the latter.
To Berkeley, Ideas are real material objects in the common sense and empirical perspective. This is the immediate given object.
What Berkeley disagreed is the "material object" that materialists claimed, i.e. the object-in-itself in absolute existence.
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But if we can't know the stone-in-itself, and we can't know whether the stone-in-itself exists, then how can we know that the stone-in-itself doesn't exist either?
That would the same as how can we know that god-in-itself doesn't exist either.
I am sure you do not want to speculate into such options.
However, the materialists are speculating that their so-called matter-in-itself exist independent of human minds.
This is what Berkeley is denying.
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But this isn't an argument. This is just Berkeley stipulating his own Dogma. He says,
A person has no Idea of what Matter is, or its relation to other things.
In other words, a person doesn't know what "it-is-in-itself" (whatever that means), or what relation this completely "unqualified Lockean substance" bears to all its primary and secondary qualities.
Yes, not an argument.
It was just an evidence to show that Berkeley had used the same concept of thing-in-itself that Kant (more detailed) used.
Here is another example (not argument);
482 PHILONOUS: I would therefore fain know what arguments you can draw from reason for the existence of what you call REAL THINGS OR MATERIAL OBJECTS.
Or, whether you remember to have seen them formerly as they are in themselves; or, if you have heard or read of any one that did.
The more i read of Berkeley, i am noticing more similarities between B and Kant's philosophy.
Quote:I disagree, primarily because the term "thing-in-itself" is non-sensical, and Berkeley has no reason to be calling material objects by this name. So I think we do know what matter is, and the relations it stands in to other objects. I still know what Material substances are, and I recognize them by their various properties and the affects they have on my sense organs
Berkeley believed it is non-sensical as well.
He did not explain this concept in detailed like Kant.
Who are you to censor Berkeley from using that term.
It may be possible, the later Kant borrowed that term from Berkeley.
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Like Kant before me, and in opposition to Berkeley, I contend that we don't even know if there is any such thing as "the thing-in-itself." Like Kant, I think the "thing in itself" is merely a theoretical device designed to show to metaphysicans like Berkeley that we cannot say anything at all about the alleged non-existence of entities that are potentially beyond the bounds of all possible sense-experience and conceptual capacity. Therefore, I don't have to be at the present time perceiving an entity for that entity to exist; nor do I have to be conceiving it in order for that entity to exist. That entity can exist independent of my perception of it. And there is nothing incoherent about asserting that.
Berkeley would agree with Kant and you with regards to the concept of the thing-in-itself.
Berkeley stated the materialists speculated that matter-in-itself based on reason and for Kant, it is pure reason.
556 PHILONOUS: The Matter, therefore, which you still insist on is something intelligible, I suppose; something that may be discovered by reason, and not by sense.
Do you notice the similarity? The intelligible "Matter" above implied matter-in-itself as stated by Berkeley elsewhere.
Quote:I also contend that this Matter can exist independently of mine and everyone else's perception (maybe not God's). And stones, rocks, trees are not Ideas; they are material things.
Is your "Matter" the same as the one claimed by philosophical materialists.
If yes, then, it can only mean matter-in-itself which as you say is non-sensical.
If your 'matter' is that of the common sense then it cannot be absolutely independent of the senses of common sense.
In a way, when you perceive something in the day-to-day sense there is apparently a 'perceiver' and what 'is perceived', i.e. a subject and an object.
But that independence is only apparent and generated by our faculty of 'outer sense' based on
a priori space.
That is Kant's. Berkeley mentioned "outness" and "distance".