Did Samuel Johnson misunderstand George Berkeley?

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Extrain
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 03:17 pm
@SammDickens,
Even though this isn't exactly the point of our discussion, the mistaken logic is obviously the hangup here that prevents the discussion from proceeding.

So here's another try. The first is a modus ponens valid argument, the latter is a modus tollens valid argument.

Skeptic:

If not-A then not-B.
not-A
Therefore, not-B

Moore:

If not-A then not-B
B
Therefore, A

I can just easily construct the same logically equivalent situation thus:

Moore:

If B then A.
B
Therefore, A

Skeptic:

If B then A,
not-A
Therefore, not-B

Samm;144027 wrote:
Your first premise for both of these syllogisms is "If not A then not B." The skeptic then goes on to say, "Not A, therefore not B."


This is correct.

Samm;144027 wrote:
This merely repeats the conditional premise as a conclusion.


No. The conditional premise is not "restated" in the conclusion. You mean to say that the consequent of the premise is restated in the conclusion.

Samm;144027 wrote:
Your Moore however goes on to say "B, therefore A."


Correct.

Samm;144027 wrote:
I am pointing out to you that the inverse ("If A then B.") of your opening premise is not supported.


But it doesn't have to because inverse conditionals are not logically equivalent. Fruther, conclusions don't support premises. Premises support conclusions.

Finally, though "If A then B" is the inverse of the premise "If not-A then not-B," inverse conditionals are not logically equivalent, so they are not saying the same thing because they have different truth-conditions. Suppose not-A is true, and suppose B is true. Their combined truths will make the first conditional true and the second conditional false.

Samm;144027 wrote:
Nor is your conclusion that "if B then A." In other words, Moore's logic is very faulty.


No. The conditional statement "if B then A" is not Moore's "conclusion." Moore's conclusion is A, and A logically follows from his denial of not-B and his acceptance of the premise if not-A then not-B. It is a valid argument because,

"If not-A then not-B" IS logically equivalent to "if B then A." These two conditionals are converses of eachother, and converses are logically equivalent because they have the same truth conditions.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 03:22 pm
@SammDickens,
Samm;144166 wrote:
I very much beg to differ in that opinion, because it is in this that Berkeley's argument is immune to people kicking stones and raising their hands for display. Brains in Vats can kick stones and raise their hands; their bodies and their worlds are within their brains/minds/sensory experiences. Moore does not KNOW that he has any hands except the hands of his sensory perceptions, which are ideas in his brain/mind/sensory perception. Therefore his argument and actions are meaningless.

J

Samm

---------- Post added 03-26-2010 at 02:51 PM ----------





Brains in Vats have no legs, so how can they kick stones? What can you mean? (Do you mean it seems to them that they can kick stones?).
 
Extrain
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 03:39 pm
@ACB,
ACB;144200 wrote:
But how can a physical demonstration confirm the truth of an analytic statement?


Precisely. Obviously, an analytic statement has no need of emprical confirmation...which is exactly why Berkely's denial of such an obvious analytic truth is totally implausible.

Johnson's kicking of the stone, then, was just to remind Berkeley of the intuitively obvious. It's a wake-up call. Perhaps someone should have thrown Berkeley himself into a roaring fire instead?Smile
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 03:48 pm
@ACB,
ACB;144200 wrote:
I suspect that that is what kennethamy meant, but that he inadvertently omitted the second "not".

---------- Post added 03-26-2010 at 09:13 PM ----------



But how can a physical demonstration confirm the truth of an analytic statement?


As I said before, I think the truth is that all material objects are solid, and that kicking a solid object (like Johnson's stone) is confirmation, but not a demonstration, in the mathematical sense of "demonstration" that the solid object is material. I would venture that all material objects are solid is necessary, but I would not think it was analytic. But, of course, that raises other issues.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 03:59 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;144224 wrote:
As I said before, I think the truth is that all material objects are solid, and that kicking a solid object (like Johnson's stone) is confirmation, but not a demonstration, in the mathematical sense of "demonstration" that the solid object is material. I would venture that all material objects are solid is necessary, but I would not think it was analytic. But, of course, that raises other issues.


I truly think "Everything solid is material" is analytic. It makes Berkeley's denial that much more counterintuitive and johnson's example nothing but an illustration of the already intuitively obvious. So there is no need for demonstrations or empirical confirmation of it.
 
SammDickens
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 05:34 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;144175 wrote:
...yes, but technically, the way you're forumulating it is not the actual premise the skeptic needs to offer reasons for plausible belief, so the skeptic is going to wriggle out of it.

The skeptic is not actually claiming that he himself doesn't know that he is a BIV, so why should he have to offer reasons for its plausibility? Nor is the skeptic claiming you do not know you are a BIV because you are not actually claiming that you are a BIV. Rather, the skeptic is claiming you do not know that you are not a BIV--which is just another way of saying that you do not know that you have hands because you lack the warrant sufficient for demonstrating your presupposed knowledge that you are not a brain in a vat.

So since the skeptic isn't required to offer you reason why he thinks it is more plausible that you don't know you are a BIV because you are not actually claiming that you are a BIV, this is not a burden the skeptic is actually carrying. All the skeptic has to do cite the high standards of warrant implicit in the first premise as reasons for your not knowing you have hands which is what Samm keeps doing.

---------- Post added 03-26-2010 at 02:21 PM ----------



Why on earth are you so upset?? I am not criticizing your answers. I am critiquing your misunderstanding of the actual problem Moore is addressing. So the discussion hasn't even got started.

It is clear that you are not actually understanding the context of this new type of anti-skeptical argument since Moore is a contemporary philosopher well-acquainted with even the most die-hard modern BIV skeptics such as Keith Lehrer, and his arguments are well-known throughout all skeptic literature. So Moore is not as near as dense as you so conveniently take him to be. It is much more likely you don't understand the problem at stake than that Moore was that stupid. Be somewhat sensible and just admit when don't understand something. There is nothing wrong with asking questions all the time. I know I sure do it!!

................................
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 05:43 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;144230 wrote:
I truly think "Everything solid is material" is analytic. It makes Berkeley's denial that much more counterintuitive and johnson's example nothing but an illustration of the already intuitively obvious. So there is no need for demonstrations or empirical confirmation of it.


I don't see why you would think so. How would that sentence be true in virtue of the terms used in it? As I said, it might be a necessary truth, but why would it be analytic? (Unless you think that it is analytic that all necessary truths are analytic. But why would you think that?).
 
Ahab
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 05:51 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;144224 wrote:
As I said before, I think the truth is that all material objects are solid, and that kicking a solid object (like Johnson's stone) is confirmation, but not a demonstration, in the mathematical sense of "demonstration" that the solid object is material. I would venture that all material objects are solid is necessary, but I would not think it was analytic. But, of course, that raises other issues.


Following Wittgenstein, I would call it a grammatical proposition. But that would raise a host of other issues.:devilish:
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 05:56 pm
@Ahab,
Ahab;144290 wrote:
Following Wittgenstein, I would call it a grammatical proposition. But that would raise a host of other issues.:devilish:


Yes, and the first question would be, what does "grammatical proposition" mean?
 
Ahab
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 06:05 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;144291 wrote:
Yes, and the first question would be, what does "grammatical proposition" mean?


It is a rule for the use of a word (or words) that resembles a description.

Like:
"Nothing can be red and green all over."
or
"Every rod has a length."


But I probably shouldn't even have mentioned it. I don't want to derail this interesting thread.Surprised
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 06:15 pm
@Ahab,
Ahab;144296 wrote:
It is a rule for the use of a word (or words) that resembles a description.

Like:
"Nothing can be red and green all over."
or
"Every rod has a length."


But I probably shouldn't even have mentioned it. I don't want to derail this interesting thread.Surprised


That would be close to saying that it was analytic, don't you think?
 
Extrain
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 07:30 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;144287 wrote:
I don't see why you would think so. How would that sentence be true in virtue of the terms used in it? As I said, it might be a necessary truth, but why would it be analytic? (Unless you think that it is analytic that all necessary truths are analytic. But why would you think that?).


If you think it is necessary, but not analytic, I assume you mean it is an a posteriori necessity like Kripke's account of natural kinds or something (Water=H20)? Perhaps. Not sure yet.

As a Kantian of sorts, I guess I prefer to make fine-grained distinctions between concepts and judgments. And since I tend to sway toward an intensional, not an extensionalist, account of meaning, I take analytic in this case to mean, the judgment is analytic if and only if to deny it is to be involved in a conceptual contradition, not a purely formal contradiction. In this case the concepts are empirical but the judgment is analytic because of the conceptual containment relations in the conceptual microstructures of the respective concepts. So the judgment is analytic a priori impure. The concept of material is contained within the concept of solidity--unlike, of course, synthetic judgments whose conceptual containment relations lie outside the spheres of eachother as in Socrates was married (which is synthetic a posteriori of course).

But I wouldn't say the judgment is true in virtue of linguistic meaning alone--because then every judgment, including all synthetic a posteriori ones would be trivially true in virtue of linguistic meaning alone. So this is too often a mischaracterization by later philosophers of Kant's way of construing analytic judgments. Instead, I would say it is true both in virtue of conceptual microstructure along with the way the world actually is.

FYI, I am not sure how much faith I have in this, so I am always willing to be challenged about it because my thoughts are always a work in progress:).

Now I'm curous. Why do you think it is necessary but not analytic?
 
Humanity
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 07:49 pm
@SammDickens,
Samm;144166 wrote:
I very much beg to differ in that opinion, because it is in this that Berkeley's argument is immune to people kicking stones and raising their hands for display. Brains in Vats can kick stones and raise their hands; their bodies and their worlds are within their brains/minds/sensory experiences. Moore does not KNOW that he has any hands except the hands of his sensory perceptions, which are ideas in his brain/mind/sensory perception. Therefore his argument and actions are meaningless.

Johnson and Moore both miss the mark, even if Berkeley's conclusions are faulty because they miss the mark on Berkeley's aruments.

Samm
Good point, in "On Certainty" Wittgenstein had argued along similar line like yours.
He dig deeper into the fundamental and grounding of human nature.



Quote:

Let me be brief, Extrain.
Oh, puh - leeeaze!!!
Go dream your dreams and believe that your beliefs are beyond challenge. You're as intransigent as anyone here, and that says a lot.
I won't be bothered with you any more.
Samm
:a-ok:

---------- Post added 03-26-2010 at 09:44 PM ----------

Extrain;144006 wrote:
Apparently he just means that when I am standing on an stone, I am Idea-standing on an Idea-stone in an Idea-space.

I seriously doubt Berkeley would want to say that Ideas are extended in actual space. So perhaps Ideas can be extended in the Space-Idea?

You might want to take into consideration these two things before you contend Ideas are spatiall extended--just for your own benefit:
(1) Special Theory of Relativity says Space is a "fabric" warped by matter itself, and that there is no such thing "Absolute" space.
(2) Though it hasn't been proven, many string-theorists today think that space is actually material, just like the normal things we take to actual material bodies.

If I can really cut the bread in space, then the bread is extended in space, and hence a material object. But bread and rocks can only be Ideas, and Ideas are not materially extended in space. So I doubt that's the conclusion Berkeley wants.
Berkeley readily agree to common sense realism.
Within that context the objects are in conventional space (not Kant or Physics).
Note Berkeley view of common things,

792 PHILONOUS. In common talk, the objects of our senses are not termed IDEAS, but THINGS.

From the above, Berkeley would not have called the stone he was standing on as an Idea-stone but just plain stone as Johnson would have
perceived it.

As such, Berkeley recognized external reality within the common sense perspective.


Quote:

But he was standing on an Idea-stone that was Idea-external to his mind's Idea-leg, Idea-body, Idea-brain within a not-so-common-sense perspective.
Are you now denying stones, bodies, and brains are Ideas?
As explained above, he was not standing on an Idea-stone.



Quote:

nah...you don't know what you're talking about.
If you do not agree, just say so.
You do not have sufficient evidence to make judgment on this.



Quote:

Ideas are just as real as material objects. Material objects are just as real as Ideas. But of course, Berkeley disagrees with the latter.
To Berkeley, Ideas are real material objects in the common sense and empirical perspective. This is the immediate given object.
What Berkeley disagreed is the "material object" that materialists claimed, i.e. the object-in-itself in absolute existence.


Quote:

But if we can't know the stone-in-itself, and we can't know whether the stone-in-itself exists, then how can we know that the stone-in-itself doesn't exist either?
That would the same as how can we know that god-in-itself doesn't exist either.
I am sure you do not want to speculate into such options.

However, the materialists are speculating that their so-called matter-in-itself exist independent of human minds.
This is what Berkeley is denying.



Quote:

But this isn't an argument. This is just Berkeley stipulating his own Dogma. He says,
A person has no Idea of what Matter is, or its relation to other things.
In other words, a person doesn't know what "it-is-in-itself" (whatever that means), or what relation this completely "unqualified Lockean substance" bears to all its primary and secondary qualities.
Yes, not an argument.
It was just an evidence to show that Berkeley had used the same concept of thing-in-itself that Kant (more detailed) used.
Here is another example (not argument);

482 PHILONOUS: I would therefore fain know what arguments you can draw from reason for the existence of what you call REAL THINGS OR MATERIAL OBJECTS.
Or, whether you remember to have seen them formerly as they are in themselves; or, if you have heard or read of any one that did.

The more i read of Berkeley, i am noticing more similarities between B and Kant's philosophy.


Quote:
I disagree, primarily because the term "thing-in-itself" is non-sensical, and Berkeley has no reason to be calling material objects by this name. So I think we do know what matter is, and the relations it stands in to other objects. I still know what Material substances are, and I recognize them by their various properties and the affects they have on my sense organs
Berkeley believed it is non-sensical as well.
He did not explain this concept in detailed like Kant.
Who are you to censor Berkeley from using that term.
It may be possible, the later Kant borrowed that term from Berkeley.


Quote:

Like Kant before me, and in opposition to Berkeley, I contend that we don't even know if there is any such thing as "the thing-in-itself." Like Kant, I think the "thing in itself" is merely a theoretical device designed to show to metaphysicans like Berkeley that we cannot say anything at all about the alleged non-existence of entities that are potentially beyond the bounds of all possible sense-experience and conceptual capacity. Therefore, I don't have to be at the present time perceiving an entity for that entity to exist; nor do I have to be conceiving it in order for that entity to exist. That entity can exist independent of my perception of it. And there is nothing incoherent about asserting that.
Berkeley would agree with Kant and you with regards to the concept of the thing-in-itself.
Berkeley stated the materialists speculated that matter-in-itself based on reason and for Kant, it is pure reason.

556 PHILONOUS: The Matter, therefore, which you still insist on is something intelligible, I suppose; something that may be discovered by reason, and not by sense.

Do you notice the similarity? The intelligible "Matter" above implied matter-in-itself as stated by Berkeley elsewhere.


Quote:
I also contend that this Matter can exist independently of mine and everyone else's perception (maybe not God's). And stones, rocks, trees are not Ideas; they are material things.
Is your "Matter" the same as the one claimed by philosophical materialists.
If yes, then, it can only mean matter-in-itself which as you say is non-sensical.

If your 'matter' is that of the common sense then it cannot be absolutely independent of the senses of common sense.
In a way, when you perceive something in the day-to-day sense there is apparently a 'perceiver' and what 'is perceived', i.e. a subject and an object.
But that independence is only apparent and generated by our faculty of 'outer sense' based on a priori space.
That is Kant's. Berkeley mentioned "outness" and "distance".
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 09:13 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;144006 wrote:
Like Kant before me, and in opposition to Berkeley, I contend that we don't even know if there is any such thing as "the thing-in-itself." Like Kant, I think the "thing in itself" is merely a theoretical device designed to show to metaphysicans like Berkeley that we cannot say anything at all about the alleged non-existence of entities that are potentially beyond the bounds of all possible sense-experience and conceptual capacity. Therefore, I don't have to be at the present time perceiving an entity for that entity to exist; nor do I have to be conceiving it in order for that entity to exist. That entity can exist independent of my perception of it. And there is nothing incoherent about asserting that.


"I contend that we don't even know if there is any such thing as "the thing-in-itself."

But this could be interpreted to say something like this: to be is to be perceived does not mean that what is not perceived, is not. What is not perceived neither is, nor is not. To infer that a thing is not, when it is not perceived, is just to imagine its non-existence - which is why it seems absurd. So the argument 'being in perception' does not say anything about what is unperceived, because there is no unperceived thing.

Consider again the idea that anything that is, must be in relation to a viewpoint. If there were not some viewpoint, then it would not have any dimensions, duration, distance from other objects, and the like. At this point, one will say, 'does this mean that unperceived, it is not?' And then the argument will start again. But consider that it doesn't mean that. Perhaps what it means, is that there is no 'view from nowhere'. For the 'view from nowhere', the thing would have all possible sizes and be in all possible positions, which is obviously absurd. What 'a viewpoint' brings to the situation is always perspective, which is always relative to a viewpoint.

Now I think what is going on in our minds, in regard to this difficult argument, is set against a certain background, an implicit world view. This is always that we see ourselves as a subjective intelligence, in a realm of objective entities. That is our basic picture of our situation: a being-in-the-world, a creature with intelligence, which of course sets up the subject-object relationship.

Then we try to account for, or comprehend, our perception of the objective entities, by making the experience of perception an object of perception. In other words, we try to imagine our imagination, which we see as something 'in here', in the subjective realm, as opposed to all of the many things out there which our sensation and imagination attempts to depict. I suggest that there is actually a recursion going on at this point which is going unnoticed. The recursion is that we are making statements about the functioning of our intelligence, as if it were an object, which it is obviously not.

Now I am not working towards a grand finale at this point but there is something I want to suggest. I think part of our underlying worldview, that I mentioned above, is also that our existence is somehow fortuitous. There seems to be no reason why our perception should be placed in such a pivotal position as it seems to be by various types of idealism. After all, the scientific revolution dethroned us from the centre of the cosmos, and science is proud of having put us in our place, which seems completely insignificant, when considered from the viewpoint of astronomy.

But maybe it is not.
 
SammDickens
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 11:04 pm
@jeeprs,
Jeeprs, from the astronomical viewpoint, we are still at the center of an infinite universe. All points are the center points of an infinite universe. Of course, most astronomers don't really believe in that kind of infinite universe. Sorry for the digression, but it just struck me that an infinite universe is all centers and no edges. :-)

Samm
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 11:45 pm
@kennethamy,
I can't help but think of the only 'definition of God' that I have ever found remotely satisfying - a circle, whose centre is everywhere, and circumference nowhere.

Seems strangely relevant.

[EDIT - ok, not 'definition' - aphorism.]
 
wayne
 
Reply Fri 26 Mar, 2010 11:51 pm
@kennethamy,
I've been thinking for awhile of how we are always in the center of the time line too.
 
Humanity
 
Reply Sat 27 Mar, 2010 12:26 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;144398 wrote:
I can't help but think of the only 'definition of God' that I have ever found remotely satisfying - a circle, whose centre is everywhere, and circumference nowhere.
Seems strangely relevant.
After reading and agreeing with Kant, one would not prefer to define "that" which is beyond human experience, despite the natural urge to do so.

Kant in CoPR wrote:

There exists, then, a natural and unavoidable dialectic of pure reason
-- not one in which a bungler might entangle himself through lack of knowledge, or one which some sophist has artificially invented to confuse thinking people, but one inseparable from human reason, and
which, even after its deceptiveness has been exposed, will not cease to play tricks with reason and continually entrap it into momentary aberrations ever and again calling for correction.


As Spinoza implied, To define god is to limit god.

Here's what they 'say' of the Tao;

The Tao that can be spoken is not the eternal Tao
The name that can be named is not the eternal name
The nameless is the origin of Heaven and Earth
The named is the mother of myriad things
Thus, constantly without desire, one observes its essence
Constantly with desire, one observes its manifestations
These two emerge together but differ in name
The unity is said to be the mystery
Mystery of mysteries, the door to all wonders

I presume you would be familiar with the Buddhist's POV of the above.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 27 Mar, 2010 01:35 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;144364 wrote:
"I contend that we don't even know if there is any such thing as "the thing-in-itself."

But this could be interpreted to say something like this: to be is to be perceived does not mean that what is not perceived, is not. What is not perceived neither is, nor is not. To infer that a thing is not, when it is not perceived, is just to imagine its non-existence - which is why it seems absurd. So the argument 'being in perception' does not say anything about what is unperceived, because there is no unperceived thing.



I am afraid that both of your arguments are just variations on, TWAITW. To imagine something as not existing is not to perceive it. It is to imagine it. (And, by the way, to imagine X as not existing, and to imagine it as existing, is to imagine the very same thing).
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Sat 27 Mar, 2010 02:49 am
@kennethamy,
Figures. I guess David Stove would have said that, too. I would have been interested to know, however, what his positive philosophy was. I never could figure that out.
 
 

 
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