On The Contrast Between Appearance And Reality

Get Email Updates Email this Topic Print this Page

Zetherin
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 09:40 am
@Pythagorean,
Pythagorean wrote:

Does science exist outside of human minds? Yes, or no.


Science is a method. It's not inside or outside of the human mind. What do you mean?

Quote:

And, do you require the physical sciences to prove that the moon existed before people?


I don't require anyone in particular to prove to me anything. But scientists have proved that the moon existed before people. If you deny this, you may as well deny the majority of what science tells us, since the evidence for this is so overwhelming.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 09:47 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;134093 wrote:
Science is a method. It's not inside or outside of the human mind. What do you mean?



I don't require anyone in particular to prove to me anything. But scientists have proved that the moon existed before people. If you deny this, you may as well deny the majority of what science tells us, since the evidence for this is so overwhelming.


The enterprise of science is not a method. It is performed by people.

He did not ask whether science was needed to prove anything to you, but to prove that something is true.
I suppose that a lot of people believed that the Moon was older than people, and that some did not, and that some had not even thought about it. But I don't see the point of his question. What difference would it make?
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 09:50 am
@Pythagorean,
kennethamy wrote:

The enterprise of science is not a method. It is performed by people.


If you mean that the method is performed by people, that is certainly true. But science is a method (the scientific method).

He couldn't have been sincerely asking whether humans could perform scientific experiments if humans did not exist, could he?

Quote:

He did not ask whether science was needed to prove anything to you, but to prove that something is true.
I suppose that a lot of people believed that the Moon was older than people, and that some did not, and that some had not even thought about it. But I don't see the point of his question. What difference would it make?


I don't know where's he's going with it.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 09:53 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;134096 wrote:
I don't know where's he's going with it.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 09:55 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;134096 wrote:
If you mean that the method is performed by people, that is certainly true. But science is a method (the scientific method).

He couldn't have been sincerely asking whether humans could perform scientific experiments if humans did not exist, could he?



I don't know where's he's going with it.


I think he was just saying that science is a social phenomenon. There is the scientific method, but I don't quite know what it means to say that science is a method.

No, I don't think that anyone really knows where he is going with this.
 
Pythagorean
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 09:59 am
@kennethamy,
Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pythagorean http://www.philosophyforum.com/images/PHBlue/buttons/viewpost.gif
Does science exist outside of human minds? Yes, or no.

And, do you require the physical sciences to prove that the moon existed before people?




kennethamy;134092 wrote:
1. No. Science is a human enterprise.
2. Yes, of course. Especially if "prove" means, "give good reasons to believe it". Just as I would need science to prove that the rock over there is older than people (if it is). Why do you ask?


If

1) science exists only in the mind and

2) proof of the moon's independent existence depends upon science, then

3) proof of the moon's existence is also dependent upon the mind.

4) Therefore, the moon's independent existence is dependent upon the mind.

-
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 10:00 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;134101 wrote:
I think he was just saying that science is a social phenomenon. There is the scientific method, but I don't quite know what it means to say that science is a method.

No, I don't think that anyone really knows where he is going with this.


...well at least in theory its possible to imagine that the entire background would only exist in minds...and would be transmitted from mind to mind, like information goes on the Web...from hard drive to hard drive...

---------- Post added 03-01-2010 at 11:01 AM ----------

...no one can ultimately disprove this...

---------- Post added 03-01-2010 at 11:04 AM ----------

...now, you ask, but do we have good reason to believe this ? and I say no, but also none to think otherwise...so its a matter of what one fells as more appealing !
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 10:18 am
@Pythagorean,
Pythagorean wrote:
1) science exists only in the mind and
2) proof of the moon's independent existence depends upon science, then
3) proof of the moon's existence is also dependent upon the mind.
4) Therefore, the moon's independent existence is dependent upon the mind.


The conclusion does not follow. Proof of the moon's independent existence, and the moon's independent existence, are two different things.

1) Scientific truths exist in the mind
2) The moon exists independently is a scientific truth
Therefore, the scientific truth that the moon exists independently exists in the mind.

I think is what you're getting at. But what does that show?
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 10:21 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;134113 wrote:
The conclusion does not follow. Proof of the moon's independent existence, and the moon's independent existence, are two different things.

1) Scientific truths exist in the mind
2) The moon exists independently is a scientific truth
Therefore, the scientific truth that the moon exists independently exists in the mind.

I think is what you're getting at. But what does that show?
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 10:22 am
@Fil Albuquerque,
Fil. Albuquerque;134115 wrote:


Why would you think that I think this is your position? I quoted Pyth., not you.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 10:25 am
@Zetherin,


---------- Post added 03-01-2010 at 11:29 AM ----------

Now, tell me why is it that you think you have good reason to not entertain both possibilities ?

---------- Post added 03-01-2010 at 11:34 AM ----------

...in a way my best answer against it is about simplification...why not to think that there is only organized information from which consciousness arises ?
 
prothero
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 03:21 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;134042 wrote:
Wiki:Idealism is the philosophical theory that maintains that the ultimate nature of reality is based on the mind or ideas.
This seems to mean "Idealism consists of the belief that reality is all in the human mind", to me.

But you must keep in mind that you cannot just change a theory to your liking simply because you may believe in another theory which differs. Idealism is how we have defined. That's what it is. And, yes, it is unintelligible. Now, maybe you have some other theory which is correct which isn't idealism, but that's another matter..

And here in lies the crux of the misunderstanding.

"Reality is based on the mind or ideas" Not the human mind, not individual consciousness.

George Berkeley the prototype for idealism grounded his idealism on the notion of God (Bishop Berkeley it was, which should offer a clue), the world was based in the mind of god.
Panpsychism (in its various pan experientialism, pansensationist forms) asserts that mind is a fundamental property of reality.
Idealism does not depend on human consciousness.
Plato's forms would represent another form of idealism where the world is based on eternal forms.

If you think mind is only a recent arrival on the scene in the universe, there is no god, mind is emergent, mind is rare, mind is only present in man and a few higher animals, the universe is basically a dead inert mechanical deterministic machine in which mind is but a rare, brief and insignificant flicker, then idealism will look silly or incomprehensible to you.

All idealists (who have thought the position through, some are just confused) are going to be some form of theist or some form of panpsychism. Universal mind, cosmic mind, gods mind, mind as an inherent property of reality, neutral monism (mind-matter unificaton) etc.
For them the universe is more like a living organism, a great thought, an idea in the mind of god and mind is inherent in the nature of reality and the universe; not confined to humans and higher living organisms on earth.

Realism (a bad term) is grounded in materialism and mind as an emergent and rare property of matter. Idealism generally rejects both premises.

I am a panpsychist and a process philosophy person so I have other problems with materialism and some problems with classical idealism.
 
pagan
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 03:40 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
i think this from wiki is quite good.

Quote:
Representational realism, related to indirect realism, is a philosophical concept, broadly equivalent to the accepted view of perception in natural science. Unfortunately, the meaning of the theory is dependent on the user's pre-interpretation of words like 'perceive', 'reality' etc. such that in the longstanding debate between representational (indirect) and naive (direct) realists each side will always claim that the other has not understood their position. Thus, readers of this account must ask what the writer(s) believe(s) their words to mean.

Representational realism states that we do not (and cannot) perceive the external world as it really is; instead we know only our ideas and interpretations of the way the world is. This might be said to indicate that a barrier or 'veil of perception' prevents first-hand knowledge of the world, but the representational realist would deny that 'first hand knowledge' in this sense is a coherent concept, since knowledge is always via some means.

An indirect realist believes our ideas of the world are interpretations of sense data derived from a real external world (unlike idealists). The debate then occurs about how ideas or interpretations arise. At least since Newton, natural scientists have made it clear that the current scope of science cannot address this. Nevertheless, the alternative, that we have knowledge of the outside world unconstrained by our means of access through sense organs that does not require interpretation would appear to be inconsistent with every day observation.
Aristotle was the first to provide an in-depth description of indirect realism. In On the Soul he describes how the eye must be affected by changes in an intervening medium rather than by objects themselves. He then speculates on how these sense impressions can form our experience of seeing and reasons that an endless regress would occur unless the sense itself were self aware. He concludes by proposing that the mind is the things it thinks. He calls the images in the mind "ideas".
the first thing to note here is how the interpretation of key words like mind, ideas, representation and real are critically important when it comes to people apparently agreeing or disagreeing.

So , do representational and indirect realists believe that the room you are now sitting in as you percieve it, is entirely constructed from the brain? ie not the room in itself, but a brain construct (including space and time). I am not asking whether you believe this or not, just trying to get agreement as to what a representational realist and an indirect realist understands.

It isn't entirely clear to me from these definitions of the realists.

It does appear to me that the representational realist believes that the room that you are apparently now in is entirely constructed from the brain and may or may not be closely connected to reality outside the brain. eg we percieve space in three dimensions, but the world beyond the veil of perception may or may not have any dimensions at all.

The indirect realist however by believing that we have 'interpretations of sense data derived from a real external world' might include the sense data as 'real and external' in the sense that they are external to the interpretation. The interpretation is therefore the boundary between internal and external, not the brain. Such a view might argue for example that we do indeed recieve visually 4D relativistic spacetime sense data, but we don't interpret it that way. But it might also be the case that the sense data doesn't include any space data at all, its just that we interpret it that way. So it seems to me that the indirect realist can adopt either position. We are sitting in a room entirely constructed from interpretations (in which case there is no spatial room), or we are sitting in a room constructed from spacetime data and is an interpretation of data that does have space in it.

But the idealist position is also open to ambiguity, and can cross over to representational realism. eg ..[INDENT]
Quote:
We are perfectly justified in maintaining that only what is within ourselves can be immediately and directly perceived, and that only my own existence can be the object of a mere perception. Thus the existence of a real object outside me can never be given immediately and directly in perception, but can only be added in thought to the perception, which is a modification of the internal sense, and thus inferred as its external cause ... . In the true sense of the word, therefore, I can never perceive external things, but I can only infer their existence from my own internal perception, regarding the perception as an effect of something external that must be the proximate cause ... . It must not be supposed, therefore, that an idealist is someone who denies the existence of external objects of the senses; all he does is to deny that they are known by immediate and direct perception ... .
[RIGHT]- Critique of Pure Reason, A367 f.[/RIGHT]
when we compare that with the summary above of representational realism, they are all but identical. Identical that is if we can agree upon terms like real, representation, idea, mind.....
[/INDENT]
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 03:56 pm
@Pythagorean,
Pythagorean;134103 wrote:
If

1) science exists only in the mind and

2) proof of the moon's independent existence depends upon science, then

3) proof of the moon's existence is also dependent upon the mind.

4) Therefore, the moon's independent existence is dependent upon the mind.

-


No, that argument is invalid. It does not follow that because our proof of the existence of the moon is mind-dependent, that the existence of the moon is mind-dependent. All proofs are mind-dependent. But the existence of what we prove need not be mind-dependent.
 
Pythagorean
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 04:23 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;134197 wrote:
No, that argument is invalid. It does not follow that because our proof of the existence of the moon is mind-dependent, that the existence of the moon is mind-dependent. All proofs are mind-dependent. But the existence of what we prove need not be mind-dependent.


What is it that distinguishes 'the proofs themselves' from 'what it is that we are proving' - ? How can we come to know that that which we are proving is independent from the proof itself ? There seems no way to know it without recourse to our proofs.

-
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 04:39 pm
@kennethamy,
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 04:40 pm
@prothero,
Zetherin;134042 wrote:
What does the evolution have to do with matter? Premise #1 involves knowing the definition of idealism. I don't see how it has anything to do with the mind existing by virtue of evolution (which is in fact true, though).


The premise that 'if the moon existed before people then idealism is false' seems to assume the framework of the evolutionary development of intelligence - which you admit in your parenthetical comment. In other words, the very definition of idealism that you are considering is based on a specific conception of the nature of mind, that is, mind as an attribute of human intelligence which is, in turn, a result of the process of natural selection. The inference is that mind did not exist before the evolution of intelligent species and that, as idealism asserts that 'the moon exists in the mind', idealism must be factually incorrect.

Zetherin;134042 wrote:
Idealism is the philosophical theory that maintains that the ultimate nature of reality is based on the mind or ideas.

This seems to mean "Idealism consists of the belief that reality is all in the human mind", to me.

But to humor you, how does idealism understand mind?


To quote Prothero, with whom I am in complete agreement on this point:

prothero;134192 wrote:
If you think mind is only a recent arrival on the scene in the universe, there is no god, mind is emergent, mind is rare, mind is only present in man and a few higher animals, the universe is basically a dead inert mechanical deterministic machine in which mind is but a rare, brief and insignificant flicker, then idealism will look silly or incomprehensible to you.


That hits the nail on the head, as far as I am concerned.

Then:
Zetherin;134042 wrote:
Idealism is how we have defined. That's what it is. And, yes, it is unintelligible.


Not at all. You define idealism in a particular way, because you have a specific understanding of the nature of mind. Now I think your viewpoint, from the perspective of evolutionary science, is reasonable. But there are philosophical insights into the nature of mind which evolutionary science cannot accomodate. However evolution now provides you with the basis of your worldview so it more or less dictates a particular view of mind. It is a naturalist view and as such rules out the consideration of anything metaphysical. Within this context, philosophical idealism is indeed unintelligible. So I don't see any point in trying to explain it further. If you believe that H Sapiens is the outcome of material processes, and the mind is an outcome of neurological processes, then I am afraid philosophical idealism will always remain unintelligible to you.

POSTSCRIPT: I should add that I am trying to remind myself in saying all this, I am speaking rhetorically in some degree. I am really not out to win converts and when I read what I have written, it does seem like I am. View it as a role play. I do find many of the questions demanding of serious consideration and I can best respond by really 'adopting the role'.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 04:43 pm
@Fil Albuquerque,
...the core for the solution is in Determinism...Soft ? or Hard ?

...if you are an advocate of free will and open systems, go with Realism approach...

...if you think like a Hard Determinist, go with an Holistic perspective...:bigsmile:
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 04:53 pm
@Pythagorean,
Pythagorean;134206 wrote:
What is it that distinguishes 'the proofs themselves' from 'what it is that we are proving' - ? How can we come to know that that which we are proving is independent from the proof itself ? There seems no way to know it without recourse to our proofs.

-

You mean that if I prove the Pythagorean theorem, then the Pythagorean theorem is the proof? That would mean that I could not know what the Pythagorean theorem was unless I could prove it. But that is clearly false.
 
Fil Albuquerque
 
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 04:55 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;134214 wrote:
You mean that if I prove the Pythagorean theorem, then the Pythagorean theorem is the proof? That would mean that I could not know what the Pythagorean theorem was unless I could prove it. But that is clearly false.


well, if find quite interesting ! Dialectic Cause conception requires a good brain ! Smile

---------- Post added 03-01-2010 at 06:00 PM ----------

Time direction is only important as Cause in an open ended non-deterministic system...
 
 

 
Copyright © 2025 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 01/11/2025 at 11:04:36