The Real is Rational

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north
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 09:34 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150661 wrote:
What would reality be like, devoid of its intelligible structure?


non-reality



Quote:
No objects. No relations between objects. No names. No thoughts. Nothing but a chaos of sensation. Utterly meaningless sound-light-feelies.


void or absolute nothing
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 09:36 pm
@Reconstructo,
This is another spin on the Hegel/Wittgenstein relation. This is one of my fav parts of the TLP.
Quote:
5.61 Logic pervades the world: the limits of the world are also its limits. So we cannot say in logic, 'The world has this in it, and this, but not that.' For that would appear to presuppose that we were excluding certain possibilities, and this cannot be the case, since it would require that logic should go beyond the limits of the world; for only in that way could it view those limits from the other side as well. We cannot think what we cannot think; so what we cannot think we cannot say either.
5.62 This remark provides the key to the problem, how much truth there is in solipsism. For what the solipsist means is quite correct; only it cannot be said, but makes itself manifest. The world is my world: this is manifest in the fact that the limits of language (of that language which alone I understand) mean the limits of my world.
5.621 The world and life are one.
5.63 I am my world. (The microcosm.)
5.631 There is no such thing as the subject that thinks or entertains ideas. If I wrote a book called The World as l found it, I should have to include a report on my body, and should have to say which parts were subordinate to my will, and which were not, etc., this being a method of isolating the subject, or rather of showing that in an important sense there is no subject; for it alone could not be mentioned in that book.-
5.632 The subject does not belong to the world: rather, it is a limit of the world.
5.633 Where in the world is a metaphysical subject to be found? You will say that this is exactly like the case of the eye and the visual field. But really you do not see the eye. And nothing in the visual field allows you to infer that it is seen by an eye.
5.6331 For the form of the visual field is surely not like this
5.634 This is connected with the fact that no part of our experience is at the same time a priori. Whatever we see could be other than it is. Whatever we can describe at all could be other than it is. There is no a priori order of things.
5.64 Here it can be seen that solipsism, when its implications are followed out strictly, coincides with pure realism. The self of solipsism shrinks to a point without extension, and there remains the reality co-ordinated with it.
5.641 Thus there really is a sense in which philosophy can talk about the self in a non-psychological way. What brings the self into philosophy is the fact that 'the world is my world'. The philosophical self is not the human being, not the human body, or the human soul, with which psychology deals, but rather the metaphysical subject, the limit of the world-not a part of it.
 
north
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 09:45 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150683 wrote:
This is another spin on the Hegel/Wittgenstein relation. This is one of my fav parts of the TLP.


using Reason clears things up
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 09:48 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150676 wrote:
Ok, so I waxed poetic. But I've written so much about this on this forum that I can't resist a new metaphor now and then.

Do you know this concept? Qualia - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Now, the other part is asking yourself how this qualia junk is structured.
This is a simple starting point. Immanuel Kant - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


Thanks. But none of this helps clarify what you said at all.

And I am familiar with these things as a graduate student in philosophy. So I strongly recommed that you check out my own professor's scholarly entry on Kant's Theory of Judgment in the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy here. Much better.

Kant's Theory of Judgment (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

Wikipedia is a very poor source on Kant.

For Qualia and its associated problems in the Philosophy of Mind, you might try here too:

Qualia (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)
Inverted Qualia (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 09:51 pm
@Reconstructo,
A little more from Witt. He says we MUST be silent, and I think he means it is literally impossible. He's not giving advice. Or if he is, then I prefer the first interpretation. We cannot speak of the irrational. That's how I see it. Our concepts of the irrational (and the infinite) are themselves rational.
In my definition of the word rational, it's a truism to say that all concept is rational. But I admit this is not the usual connotation. In my opinion, Kant's noumena attempts the impossible, which is to point beyond the limits of thought. It functions like the word "infinite" as a mere negation, still in itself quite "processed" (unlike the noumena it is supposed to refer to) or finite (unlike the "true" infinite it attempts to refer to)
Quote:

Perhaps this book will be understood only by someone who has himself already had the thoughts that are expressed in it-or at least similar thoughts.-So it is not a textbook.-Its purpose would be achieved if it gave pleasure to one person who read and understood it.
The book deals with the problems of philosophy, and shows, I believe, that the reason why these problems are posed is that the logic of our language is misunderstood. The whole sense of the book might be summed up the following words: what can be said at all can be said clearly, and what we cannot talk about we must pass over in silence.
Thus the aim of the book is to draw a limit to thought, or rather-not to thought, but to the expression of thoughts: for in order to be able to draw a limit to thought, we should have to find both sides of the limit thinkable (i.e. we should have to be able to think what cannot be thought).
It will therefore only be in language that the limit can be drawn, and what lies on the other side of the limit will simply be nonsense.


---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 10:54 PM ----------

I'm not saying I'm a member of this party, but it's a fascinating debate. Kronecker did his best to destroy the career of Cantor. It's like Mr. Finite versus Mr. Infinite. I think Cantor is valid, but his infinite is no more truly thinkable than Kant's unbounded space. He was influenced by the Ein Soph, the first letter of which he used to notate his transfinites. Yes, the transfinites are justified, but this does not mean they can be processed in their fullness. No more than pi can be exhausted.
Finitism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 09:56 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150687 wrote:
In my opinion, Kant's noumena attempts the impossible, which is to point beyond the limits of thought.


The noumena for Kant was merely a theoretical device he postulated against the metaphysicans to limit what they could and could not sesnibly talk about. He didn't "attempt" anything with it.

Reconstructo;150687 wrote:
It functions like the word "infinite" as a mere negation, still in itself quite "processed" (unlike the noumena it is supposed to refer to) or finite (unlike the "true" infinite it attempts to refer to)


*Word salad* again. I don't understand this.

---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 09:58 PM ----------

Reconstructo;150687 wrote:
I'm not saying I'm a member of this party, but it's a fascinating debate. Kronecker did his best to destroy the career of Cantor. It's like Mr. Finite versus Mr. Infinite. I think Cantor is valid, but his infinite is no more truly thinkable than Kant's unbounded space. He was influenced by the Ein Soph, the first letter of which he used to notate his transfinites. Yes, the transfinites are justified, but this does not mean they can be processed in their fullness. No more than pi can be exhausted.
Finitism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


???

For Kant, Space was both Transcendentally Ideal and Empirically Real, but what does this have to do with "Cantor's being valid"? How is Cantor valid?
 
north
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:03 pm
@Reconstructo,
the real is rational to the object(s) its self , because of what it is , in the first place
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:04 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150686 wrote:
Thanks. But none of this helps clarify what you said at all.

And I am familiar with these things as a graduate student in philosophy. So I strongly recommed that you check out my own professor's scholarly entry on Kant's Theory of Judgment in the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy here. Much better.

Kant's Theory of Judgment (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

Wikipedia is a very poor source on Kant.

For Qualia and its associated problems in the Philosophy of Mind, you might try here too:

Qualia (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)
Inverted Qualia (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)


I know that Wiki is a poor source, but I can't teleport books. :sarcastic: You know how it goes. It's a quick and obvious reference.

Sorry if I was patronizing. Your first response was perhaps misleading. This forum hosts folks along the entire spectrum of exposure.

For me, Kant is great, but flawed. Hegel is flawed too, but he makes that leap from transcendental to absolute idealism. The noumena concept is, in my view, a stepping stone. At some point, it started to seem absurd. And I think it was Fichte who first attacked it? Don't get me wrong. I have enormous respect for Kant. He wanted to ground objectivity. But I think objectivity is grounded in logos, which I suppose is in the direction of Witt.

Do you like Kojeve? That's one of my favorites.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:05 pm
@north,
north;150692 wrote:
the real is rational to the object(s) its self , because of what it is , in the first place


what is the object?

what is the real?

how can the real be "rational to" the object?

How can I "be rational" to my television?

"rational" is an intransitive, not transitive, verb. So how can I rational something?
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:07 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150690 wrote:
The noumena for Kant was merely a theoretical device he postulated against the metaphysicans to limit what they could and could not sesnibly talk about. He didn't "attempt" anything with it.

That's like saying a wheel is just a decoration. The noumena is crucial. And the limiting of metaphysics is whole point of the critique of pure reason. What can and can't be known. Noumena is crucial, in my opinion. "Attempt" is a fine word. Why not? He wasn't trying?

---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 11:08 PM ----------

Extrain;150690 wrote:

*Word salad* again. I don't understand this.


Noumena is the inferred/assumed source of intuition, which is processed into our rational structure experience. Noumena is the notion of what reality is apart from our structuring perception of it. Or such is my interp.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:16 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150693 wrote:
I know that Wiki is a poor source, but I can't teleport books. :sarcastic: You know how it goes. It's a quick and obvious reference.


The plus sign symbolizes logos, and in this context, self-conscious logos, that understands itself as the collision of qualia and form of forms (transcendental unity). In terms of the trinity, only the son is real (logos), but the son deduces the peanut butter and jelly he is made of. Accident and essence. Qualia and unity/negation.

Or Quality and Quantity.

I can't make any sense of this at all, sorry.

Reconstructo;150693 wrote:
For me, Kant is great, but flawed. Hegel is flawed too, but he makes that leap from transcendental to absolute idealism.


Why is Kant flawed?

What is the difference between "transcendental" and "absolute" idealism as you understand it?

Reconstructo;150693 wrote:
The noumena concept is, in my view, a stepping stone. At some point, it started to seem absurd.


Why?

Reconstructo;150693 wrote:
And I think it was Fichte who first attacked it? Don't get me wrong. I have enormous respect for Kant. He wanted to ground objectivity. But I think objectivity is grounded in logos, which I suppose is in the direction of Witt.


What is "logos"?

What is "logos" with respect to what Kant said? What is "Logos" with respect to what Witt- said? How are they different?

What does "grounding objectivity" mean?
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:18 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150690 wrote:

For Kant, Space was both Transcendentally Ideal and Empirically Real, but what does this have to do with "Cantor's being valid"? How is Cantor valid?

We have parallel situations, you might say. The idea of the noumena and the idea of infinity are both paradoxical. Or let us say that they tricky concepts.

The more we think about the concept of noumena, the more we see how empty it is. Hegel makes this point. And I agree. What, in God's name, can noumena means for beings who can never experience noumena? Noumena is nothing but the negation of appearance/perception. So Fichte (who I don't know well, so I am going by histories of philosophy) abolished it in his system. Who needs it? It doesn't mean anything. This makes idealism "absolute." Appearance is reality. The idea of a reality behind appearance is still just appearance...but if all there is is appearance, then appearance becomes a questionable expression. Might as well say reality. Hegel continues this, and dissolves mind-matter dichotomies. Did you read that Wittgenstein quote about the self? About logic being the limit of the world? What is the difference between mind and matter? Mind can be thought of as the intelligible structure of "matter," but "matter" is already an abstraction, already mind...but so is "mind." At some point, the system of concepts (that's us) becomes conscious of itself as a system of concepts (self-conscious logos, and logos means discourse, hence the word logical.) But this requires quite the journey through error. In fact, Hegel presented the history of philosophy itself as the slow evolution of the absolute's consciousness of itself. The absolute is a sort of negative theology word, in my opinion. If the mind-matter duality is bogus, we need something else. Hegel liked Geist. It's quite a tangled skein to explain, but I have tried, and I suggest this book for more....(Hegel wasn't perfect, and Kojeve points out some errors. I think Kojeve is himself a genius worthy of respect. He says brilliant things on Plato, Aristotle, Parmenides, etc. Introduction to the reading of Hegel ... - Google Books

---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 11:18 PM ----------

Extrain;150698 wrote:
The plus sign symbolizes logos, and in this context, self-conscious logos, that understands itself as the collision of qualia and form of forms (transcendental unity). In terms of the trinity, only the son is real (logos), but the son deduces the peanut butter and jelly he is made of. Accident and essence. Qualia and unity/negation.

Or Quality and Quantity.

I can't make any sense of this at all, sorry.

That's OK. At least you are polite.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:21 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
We have parallel situations, you might say. The idea of the noumena and the idea of infinity are both paradoxical. Or let us say that they tricky concepts.


I'm not sure about infinity....but that's another story.

Quote:
The more we think about the concept of noumena, the more we see how empty it is.


"Noumena" was not a concept for Kant.
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:24 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150698 wrote:

Why is Kant flawed?

What is the difference between "transcendental" and "absolute" idealism as you understand it?


Well, I don't think causality is transcendental. I also think the Categories can be reduced to lower terms. (meaning fewer categories.) I prefer the root of Hegel's logic, which happens to mesh with Wittgenstein's TLP. IMO, a person has to look at the structure of thought. What is abstraction? What is concept? I have littered the metaphysics and language section with my ideas on this, so allow me to refer you there.

Absolute idealism abolishes the noumena. Which means it abolishes the dichotomy of reality-in-itself and reality-as-it-appears. But that is a crude reduction.
Quote:

Absolute idealism is an ontologically monistic philosophy attributed to G. W. F. Hegel. It is Hegel's account of how being is ultimately comprehensible as an all-inclusive whole. Hegel asserted that in order for the thinking subject (human reason or consciousness) to be able to know its object (the world) at all, there must be in some sense an identity of thought and being. Otherwise, the subject would never have access to the object and we would have no certainty about any of our knowledge of the world. To account for the differences between thought and being, however, as well as the richness and diversity of each, the unity of thought and being cannot be expressed as the abstract identity "A=A". Absolute idealism is the attempt to demonstrate this unity using a new "speculative" philosophical method, which requires new concepts and rules of logic. According to Hegel, the absolute ground of being is essentially a dynamic, historical process of necessity that unfolds by itself in the form of increasingly complex forms of being and of consciousness, ultimately giving rise to all the diversity in the world and in the concepts with which we think and make sense of the world.
Yeah, it's Wiki, but it's better than nothing, and it's a third party source.

---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 11:25 PM ----------

Extrain;150701 wrote:

"Noumena" was not a concept for Kant.


Noumena is certainly a concept, no matter what dodges Kant or anyone attempts. It's obvious a concept. Else it is just a series of letters. Come on. Seriously.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:32 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
This makes idealism "absolute." Appearance is reality. The idea of a reality behind appearance is still just appearance...but if all there is is appearance, then appearance becomes a questionable expression. Might as well say reality. Hegel continues this, and dissolves mind-matter dichotomies.


How is absolute Idealism different than transcendental idealism?

Hegel's absolute idealism sounds just like Berekely's Metaphysical Idealism all over again. He turns matter into mind, and mind into matter--which is absurd. And FYI, Hegel's philosophy is widely looked down upon by philosophers in mainstream analytic philosophy for being completely nonsensical and confusing. I don't understand it. I never did.

Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
Did you read that Wittgenstein quote about the self? About logic being the limit of the world? What is the difference between mind and matter? Mind can be thought of as the intelligible structure of "matter," but "matter" is already an abstraction, already mind...but so is "mind."


But Witt- never said matter just is mind.

Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
At some point, the system of concepts (that's us) becomes conscious of itself as a system of concepts (self-conscious logos, and logos means discourse, hence the word logical.)


huh? I am a "system of concepts"? What happens if I lose all concepts through amnesia? Do I cease to exist?

Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
But this requires quite the journey through error.


Why?

Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
In fact, Hegel presented the history of philosophy itself as the slow evolution of the absolute's consciousness of itself.


yes, that is Hegel's mysteriously Metaphysically-Loaded nonsensical "Evolution of the Absolute in time" which I don't understand at all. I seriously don't know what that means.

Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
The absolute is a sort of negative theology word, in my opinion.


What is a "negative theory of the world"?

Reconstructo;150699 wrote:
If the mind-matter duality is bogus,


Why is the distinction "Bogus"?

---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 10:43 PM ----------

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
Well, I don't think causality is transcendental.


What does "transcendental" mean for Kant?

Cauality is both transcendentally ideal and empirically real.

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
I also think the Categories can be reduced to lower terms. (meaning fewer categories.)


Which Categories would you propose to "reduce," and why?

What are "lower terms"?

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
I prefer the root of Hegel's logic, which happens to mesh with Wittgenstein's TLP.


What is the "root of Hegel's logic"?

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
IMO, a person has to look at the structure of thought. What is abstraction? What is concept? I have littered the metaphysics and language section with my ideas on this, so allow me to refer you there.


Unfortunately, I haven't understood anything at all that you've said.

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
Absolute idealism abolishes the noumena.


How does absolute idealism "abolish" the noumena. What is the "noumena"?

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
Which means it abolishes the dichotomy of reality-in-itself and reality-as-it-appears.


Kant never proposed such a distinction. That was George Berkeley's distinction.

What does the "thing-in-itself" mean for Kant?

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
But that is a crude reduction.


To which "reduction" are you referring?

Reconstructo;150702 wrote:
Noumena is certainly a concept, no matter what dodges Kant or anyone attempts. It's obvious a concept. Else it is just a series of letters. Come on. Seriously.


It might be a concept for Hegel. But certainly not for Kant.

For Kant, all concepts were either pure or empirical, or a mix of both. The thing in itself was neither.

Like I said, the "thing in itself" was merely a theoretical postulate Kant used to attack the metaphysicians who thought knowledge could reach beyond the bounds of sense-experience. But Kant never said the only thing immediately know is what is given in sense-experience. Never. That's Berkeley's Idea, not Kant's.

And it is widely agreed among extant Kantian Scholars that Hegel misunderstood Kant completely. He did.
 
north
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 10:56 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150694 wrote:
what is the object?


what ever it is

Quote:
what is the real?


Earth , us and the physical Universe

Quote:
how can the real be "rational to" the object?


because the real is based on the object

without the object there is no basis for reality

Quote:
How can I "be rational" to my television?


your TV doesn't think

Quote:
"rational" is an intransitive, not transitive, verb. So how can I rational something?


rational or reason is actually very flexible , as compared to logic ( logic is based on the conclusion of the reasoning , logic , does not by nature of its self bring in further knowledge of ology(s) , logic may question reason , but doesn't in and of its self draw in knowledge , thats not logic purpose )
 
Extrain
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 11:04 pm
@north,
north;150718 wrote:
because the real is based on the object

without the object there is no basis for reality


Sure. But how can I be "rational to" an object? What does that mean to be "rational to something"?

north;150718 wrote:
your TV doesn't think


Of course not.....but how can I be "rational to my TV"?

north;150718 wrote:
rational or reason is actually very flexible , as compared to logic ( logic is based on the conclusion of the reasoning , logic , does not by nature of its self bring in further knowledge of ology(s) , logic may question reason , but doesn't in and of its self draw in knowledge , thats not logic purpose )


How does that answer my question?

You said that you can "be rational to an object."

I asked, "how can you be rational to an object"?

"Being rational" is a property of correct thinking.

But how do I rational objects?

I can kick objects, I can slam objects, I can move objects.

But how do I rational objects?
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 11:12 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150706 wrote:
How is absolute Idealism different than transcendental idealism?

Hegel's absolute idealism sounds just like Berekely's Metaphysical Idealism all over again. He turns matter into mind, and mind into matter--which is absurd. And FYI, Hegel's philosophy is widely looked down upon by philosophers in mainstream analytic philosophy for being completely nonsensical and confusing. I don't understand it. I never did.



But Witt- never said matter just is mind.



huh? I am a "system of concepts"? What happens if I lose all concepts through amnesia? Do I cease to exist?



Why?



yes, that is Hegel's mysteriously Metaphysically-Loaded nonsensical "Evolution of the Absolute in time" which I don't understand at all. I seriously don't know what that means.



What is a "negative theory of the world"?



Why is the distinction "Bogus"?

---------- Post added 04-11-2010 at 10:43 PM ----------



What does "transcendental" mean for Kant?

Cauality is both transcendentally ideal and empirically real.



Which Categories would you propose to "reduce," and why?

What are "lower terms"?



What is the "root of Hegel's logic"?



Unfortunately, I haven't understood anything at all that you've said.



How does absolute idealism "abolish" the noumena. What is the "noumena"?



Kant never proposed such a distinction. That was George Berkeley's distinction.

What does the "thing-in-itself" mean for Kant?



To which "reduction" are you referring?



It might be a concept for Hegel. But certainly not for Kant.

For Kant, all concepts were either pure and empirical. The thing in itself was neither.

Like I said, the "thing in itself" was merely a theoretical postulate Kant used to attack the metaphysicians who thought knowledge could reach beyond the bounds of sense-experience. But Kant never said the only thing immediately know is what is given in sense-experience. Never. That's Berkeley's Idea, not Kant's.

And it is widely agreed among extant Kantian Scholars that Hegel misunderstood Kant completely. He did.


It's a free country, man. I'm quite aware that Hegel is difficult, often attacked, etc. But I stand by his system as deeper than Kant's. I salute you as an intelligent person. I think it's good to be skeptical. But let me say that absolute idealism is not really idealism anymore. It's not like Berkeley. It's name is related to its parentage. The title of this thread is why Hegel isn't really an idealist. The real is rational and the rational is real. The dichotomy is bogus because it's illogical. Of course it's pragmatically useful. And Hegel is indeed from a practical view just brilliant poetry. Do you like Rorty? Rorty is a bridge from Hegel to the useful folks.

I think much of analytic philosophy is a cowardly retreat from everything that makes philosophy worth the trouble. Of course Rorty was a member of the tribe, but he crossed the aisle and united the clans. Here's the thing. Clear language is great. But language is often metaphorical. You can't calculate philosophy as if metaphor is clear as math is clear. And the denial of metaphoricity is highly questionable in my book. Language requires interpretation. It's not a perfect medium. Yes, the continental boys are often full of S, and many of them bore me. But the best part of the cont. tradition engages the real difficulty of communication. I don't like reductive theories of meaning, which sometimes flatter the reducer.

The self-consciousness of the absolute is a brilliant notion. I dug up a 3rd party interpretation. I have littered the metaphysics section with my own interpretation. Let me stress that as much as I love Hegel, the idea is more important than the man. So if my interpretation is wrong (a matter of debate), it's still at the moment what I would prefer to the official Hegel-line. Which never existed of course, as the man is obscure and suggestive. Still, Kojeve is a genius. I can't say that I disagree w/ his interpretation in any significant way. (I read a bit of Hegel in the German, but I don't know much German :sarcastic:)
Quote:

G.W.F. Hegel's The Phenomenology of Mind (1807) is an extensive and wide-ranging investigation of how knowledge is obtained of absolute truth, and of how spirit reveals itself as absolute reality. Hegel maintains that knowledge is not separated from, or external to, absolute reality, but that knowledge is itself reality, and that reality is mental and spiritual. For Hegel, reality is rational and logical. Reality is the conceptual totality of absolute mind and spirit. Knowledge reaches its goal when it arrives at the Absolute, and when it no longer has to search beyond itself, because in the Absolute it finds itself.
According to Hegel, the Absolute is Spirit, and Spirit is Reality.1 All truth is within the Absolute. The Absolute has self-existence; i.e. it has being-for-itself. The Absolute results from a process of becoming and developing itself.
 
north
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 11:14 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;150720 wrote:
Sure. But how can I be "rational to" an object? What does that mean to be "rational to something"?


you can't



Quote:
Of course not.....but how can I be "rational to my TV"?


you can't


Quote:


How does that answer my question?


think about it

Quote:
You said that you can "be rational to an object."


oops

Quote:
I asked, "how can you be rational to an object"?


can't

Quote:
"Being rational" is a property of correct thinking.


I perfer sound thinking

Quote:
But how do I rational objects?


why would you need to rationalize the obvious ?

Quote:
I can kick objects, I can slam objects, I can move objects.

But how do I rational objects?


without objects , from the micro to the macro , you wouldn't be , you wouldn't exist
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sun 11 Apr, 2010 11:18 pm
@Reconstructo,
Yes, Hegel is just poetry. Better to study engineering, and neither Hegel nor whatever antiphilosophy is hip at the moment...if one wants direct worldly significance. Compared to physical science, philosophy is a pillow (soft). Doesn't matter that science is grounded on an implicit metaphysics. They got it covered?

This is an attack on Psychiatry. I just offer it to show the vulnerability of "soft science." Philosophy is literature for repressed mathematicians? Smile
YouTube - CCHR on Psychiatry: No Science, No Cures
 
 

 
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