Did Samuel Johnson misunderstand George Berkeley?

Get Email Updates Email this Topic Print this Page

Jebediah
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 04:40 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140379 wrote:
It is indeed the description of eyes and lenses and light and receptive fields. Berkeley would agree with that entirely. Because that is not a description of a material substance.

Objectivism - the idea that the world consists of 'mind-independent objects' - must insist that the rock, the dress, or any other object, really does have an appearance, that is not a function of the perception of the viewer.

But Berkeley is saying: you look at an object under a certain light, it looks a certain way; under other light, another way. Which is the 'real' way? How does it really look?

This can go a lot further also. If you analyse the object, you will find it is composed of parts. Science will generally assume the parts are more fundamental than the whole - this is reductionism. But again, is the dress really a dress, or really a set of threads? Or is it really a combination of a number of smaller pieces of cloth? Or is it really atoms?

What is it really?


It's really molecules and atoms and quarks etc. How it looks depends on how you look at it, what you look at it with, and the environmental conditions. What you think about it depends on what you've learned that it is, and your ideas about it, and the context it is in.

A dress is a dress, made up of pieces of cloth, made up of threads, made up of molecules etc.

I think this is all interesting in a "this is the first time they figured this stuff out" way. But why do people care enough to debate strongly? What are the implications? i.e. why do "clerics rail against materialism"?
 
SammDickens
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 04:42 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140367 wrote:
Kennethamy is right about that point. Berkeley denied the reality of material substance. That was his claim to fame.



Question: one point that Berkeley makes about the object is that to beings with different types of visual systems, the object appears differently.

How does it REALLY appear?

The problem is that Berkeley saw the foundation of reality in the ideas and images of the mind, especially the mind of God. But you see, he didn't deny the appearance of materialism, only that it was a fundamental reality. I'm quite sure about this.

Samm
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 05:12 pm
@SammDickens,
Samm;140383 wrote:
The problem is that Berkeley saw the foundation of reality in the ideas and images of the mind, especially the mind of God. But you see, he didn't deny the appearance of materialism, only that it was a fundamental reality. I'm quite sure about this.

Samm


If you mean that Berkeley did not deny that people believed that there were material objects, but that they were wrong to believe that, you are certainly right. In fact, that is why he wrote his books. To try to prove that people were wrong to think that there were material objects.

---------- Post added 03-16-2010 at 07:17 PM ----------

Ir seems to me that to believe that unless an object looks the same under all conditions of perception, that some one of its appearances is not how it really looks, has no merit. There is no reason to think that an object ought to (damn well) look the same no matter under what conditions it is perceived.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 05:36 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;140385 wrote:
Ir seems to me that to believe that unless an object looks the same under all conditions of perception, that some one of its appearances is not how it really looks, has no merit. There is no reason to think that an object ought to (damn well) look the same no matter under what conditions it is perceived.


How does it really look? Is there a 'real' appearance that causes the 'apparent appearance' (spot the tautology) and if so how do you differentiate the real from the apparent.

Berkeley's answer: you can't. The appearance is all we have. He asks if we perceive:

  • by sight, anything besides light, colours, and shapes;
  • by hearing, anything but sounds;
  • by the palate, anything besides tastes;
  • by the sense of smell, anything besides odours;
  • by touch, anything more than tangible qualities.

He says "the senses perceive
only what they perceive immediately; because they don't
make inferences. So the deducing of causes or occasions
from effects and appearances (which are the only things we
perceive by sense) is entirely the business of reason".

Which seems reasonable to me.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 05:47 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140391 wrote:
How does it really look? Is there a 'real' appearance that causes the 'apparent appearance' (spot the tautology) and if so how do you differentiate the real from the apparent.

Berkeley's answer: you can't. The appearance is all we have. He asks if we perceive:

  • by sight, anything besides light, colours, and shapes;
  • by hearing, anything but sounds;
  • by the palate, anything besides tastes;
  • by the sense of smell, anything besides odours;
  • by touch, anything more than tangible qualities.

He says "the senses perceive
only what they perceive immediately; because they don't
make inferences. So the deducing of causes or occasions
from effects and appearances (which are the only things we
perceive by sense) is entirely the business of reason".

Which seems reasonable to me.


Not how it really looks, but how it really is. Of course, inferences are "the business of reason". That's a tautology. The appearances are not all we have (whatever that means). We have what we infer. But, more importantly, what makes Berkeley think that what appears to us is not real? Something might not only look like a cigar, it might really be a cigar. Berkeley simply assumes that we never see cigars, but only appearances of cigars. What is the argument for that assumption? Is it to be supposed that because when we see a cigar, we see what appears to be a cigar, that what we see is only the appearance of a cigar and not a cigar. Is there any reason to think that what appears to be a cigar is not a cigar?
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 06:05 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;140394 wrote:
Not how it really looks, but how it really is. Of course, inferences are "the business of reason". That's a tautology. The appearances are not all we have (whatever that means). We have what we infer. But, more importantly, what makes Berkeley think that what appears to us is not real? Something might not only look like a cigar, it might really be a cigar. Berkeley simply assumes that we never see cigars, but only appearances of cigars. What is the argument for that assumption? Is it to be supposed that because when we see a cigar, we see what appears to be a cigar, that what we see is only the appearance of a cigar and not a cigar. Is there any reason to think that what appears to be a cigar is not a cigar?


It doesn't matter what object you refer to - cigar, rock, dress, whatever. The question is always the same. Are there two things, or one? If there is an object, and the perception of the object, how can they be separated? You are inferring on the basis of appearance that there is a real object 'underneath' or 'apart from' or 'prior to' the appearance of the object. But in fact, however you engage with the object - from near, far, from this or that angle, or microscopically, you have a perception of the object. If you touch it, you have a tangible perception. There is nothing separate from each of those elements of perception.

There is a whole other line of argument as well. What is a cigar? Well in English, it is called Cigar. It has other names in other countries. Here we smoke it. In Quito (let's say) they are so numerous, that they stick 'em in the holes that appear in their mudbrick homes to keep the mosquitoes out. So there, a cigar is not something you smoke. You might say cigars are really only made out of tobacco. In Shanghai (say) they are making them out of corn husks, and calling them Smokeroons. Are they really cigars, or not?

Examples could be multiplied, but the principle is always the same. None of this would be news to deconstructionism, either.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 06:13 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140400 wrote:
It doesn't matter what object you refer to - cigar, rock, dress, whatever. The question is always the same. Are there two things, or one? If there is an object, and the perception of the object, how can they be separated? You are inferring on the basis of appearance that there is a real object 'underneath' or 'apart from' or 'prior to' the appearance of the object. But in fact, however you engage with the object - from near, far, from this or that angle, or microscopically, you have a perception of the object. If you touch it, you have a tangible perception. There is nothing separate from each of those elements of perception.

There is a whole other line of argument as well. What is a cigar? Well in English, it is called Cigar. It has other names in other countries. Here we smoke it. In Quito (let's say) they are so numerous, that they stick 'em in the holes that appear in their mudbrick homes to keep the mosquitoes out. So there, a cigar is not something you smoke. You might say cigars are really only made out of tobacco. In Shanghai (say) they are making them out of corn husks, and calling them Smokeroons. Are they really cigars, or not?

Examples could be multiplied, but the principle is always the same. None of this would be news to deconstructionism, either.


The object is a thing. The perception of the object is not a thing, so it is not another thing. There is only one thing, the thing. The perception of the thing is the way the thing appears to us. But that does not mean that the appearance is also a thing. It is the reification of appearances which causes all the trouble.

I was talking about cigars in the United States. That the term "cigar" might mean other things in other places does not mean it doesn't mean what it means in the United States. What would make you think that what people in Quito stick into holes are cigars, for heaven sake? What would they have in common with what are called "cigars"?
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 06:25 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;140402 wrote:
The object is a thing. The perception of the object is not a thing, so it is not another thing. There is only one thing, the thing. The perception of the thing is the way the thing appears to us. But that does not mean that the appearance is also a thing. It is the reification of appearances which causes all the trouble.


The argument is that the object and its perception cannot be separated. It is you who are introducing the reification by saying there is a thing, apart from the perception of it. The argument is saying that the 'material substance' is what cannot be demonstrated - but only inferred by reason. Which is what I think you are doing. It may be a reasonable inference, but it is an inference nonetheless.

---------- Post added 03-17-2010 at 11:27 AM ----------

kennethamy;140402 wrote:
. What would make you think that what people in Quito stick into holes are cigars, for heaven sake? What would they have in common with what are called "cigars"?


The point is one of identity. The object may be exactly the same, but to one person, they are something you smoke, and to another, something you stick in a hole. So which is it really? There is no definite answer to that question apart from: it depends.
 
Humanity
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 09:35 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140354 wrote:
He is very clear about denying the existence of material substance. He says this in exactly those words at the beginning of the Dialogs.

As I pointed out several pages ago, the meaning of the word 'substance' is key in this. Substance is the underlying stuff in which 'accidents' inhere (accidents being the characteristics of the object). Berkeley is saying there is no substance apart from the accidents, and the accidents are given in perception, and don't exist outside perception. He explicitly addresses, and rejects, Galileo's distinction between primary and secondary qualities, and says that all such qualities are given in perception.
I have not focused on the Dialogs, but from what i read of his Treatise, Berkley did not deny material objects or matter of materials in general.

What he denied was the matter of the philosophical realists, i.e. the unthinking substance and unthought matter.
The critical variable here is 'unthinking' and 'unthought'.
He repeated this many times in his Treatise.

What Berkeley deny is this thing called Matter or corporeal substance of philosophical realism.
Note, i have posted this para but it don't seem to click with many.
Berkeley in Treatise wrote:

35. I do not argue against the existence of any one thing that we can apprehend either by sense or reflexion.
That the things I see with my eyes and touch with my hands do exist, really exist, I make not the least question.
The only thing whose existence we deny is that which philosophers call Matter or corporeal substance.


Berkeley qualified what is matter in his perspective.

Quote:

9. .......
The ideas we have of these they acknowledge not to be the resemblances of anything existing without the mind, or unperceived, but they will have our ideas of the primary qualities to be patterns or images of things which exist without the mind, in an unthinking substance which they call Matter.
By Matter, therefore, we are to understand an inert, senseless substance, in which extension, figure, and motion do actually subsist.
But it is evident from what we have already shown, that extension, figure, and motion are only ideas existing in the mind, and that an idea can be like nothing but another idea, and that consequently neither they nor their archetypes can exist in an unperceiving substance.
Hence, it is plain that that the very notion of what is called Matter or corporeal substance, involves a contradiction in it.


Berkeley was very critical of the philosophical realist's concept of matter.
He wrote in the Treatise,
"23. To make out this, it is necessary that you conceive them [implied matter] existing unconceived or unthought of, which is a manifest repugnancy."

I agree with you that we need to get the meaning of 'subtance', 'matter', 'exists', perception' right and from Berkeley's perspective before one can refute Berkeley.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Tue 16 Mar, 2010 10:19 pm
@Humanity,
Humanity;140425 wrote:
I have not focused on the Dialogs, but from what i read of his Treatise, Berkley did not deny material objects or matter of materials in general.


Here is the twelfth paragraph of the first of the dialogs, wherein Phil represents Berkeley

Quote:
Phil: I seriously believe that there is no such thing as what
philosophers call 'material substance'; but if I were made to
see anything absurd or sceptical in this, then I would have
the same reason to renounce this belief as I think I have now
to reject the contrary opinion.
To which Hylas' response is,

Quote:
Hyl: What! can anything be more fantastical, more in conflict
with common sense, or a more obvious piece of scepticism,
than to believe there is no such thing as matter?
Fairly unequivocal, I would say.

---------- Post added 03-17-2010 at 03:20 PM ----------

I had put a comment here about physics, but it is a red herring.

There is however a critique of Berkeley from the viewpoint of Advaita Vedanta at On Berkeley and Advaita
 
Humanity
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 12:01 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140439 wrote:
Here is the twelfth paragraph of the first of the dialogs, wherein Phil represents Berkeley

To which Hylas' response is,

Fairly unequivocal, I would say.

---------- Post added 03-17-2010 at 03:20 PM ----------

I had put a comment here about physics, but it is a red herring.

There is however a critique of Berkeley from the viewpoint of Advaita Vedanta at On Berkeley and Advaita
Since Berkeley's Treatise is the mainstay of this theory, i think whatever he stated as 'matter' elsewhere should be taken in the context of the Treatise.

imo, we should not accept Berkeley's 'matter' literally.
In Berkeley's perspective, 'matter' referred to "unthingking substance", as in para 9 of the treatise.

The concept 'matter' can be deliberated in various perspective, i.e.

1. Common sense perspective
Matter is what ordinary materials are made of.

2. Scientific Perpective
Matter is the the constituent of object that is discovered by the scientific methods via direct (up to atoms) and indirect empirical (sub-atomic particles) means.
While this matter is scientifically objective, this matter is ultimately intersubjective not absolutely objective.

3. Subjective materialism
Whatever is defined as matter in this perspective, it exist interdependent with the subject mind and consciousness.

4. Philosophical Realism or materialism
This is the inferred and so-called ultimate matter or substance that exists completely ontologically independent of our conceptual schemes, linguistic practices, beliefs, etc.
This is the perspective that Berkeley did not agree with.

From the Treatise we will note that Berkeley agreed with 1, 2 and 3, but not 4.

Thus it is imperative that we qualify the concept 'matter' whenever we discuss Berkeley's theory.

Thanks and noted the link on 'Berkeley and Advaita'.
At a glance; while they recognized Berkeley's critique of the limitation of the abstract, they do not seem to highlight the central and critical concept of the "unthinking" matter.
In addition, in the article,

"In Berkeley, the external world does not exist."
This is obviously a wrong interpretation of Berkeley.

"It is for this reason that Sri Shankaracharya attacks the Buddhists, and his arguments are equally valid against Berkeley."
Note the anti-Buddhist stance, so we will need to reconcile Buddhism and Advaita and find out the difference and compare them with Berkeley's theory (non-theistic aspect).
 
Pyrrho
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 07:54 am
@Humanity,
Humanity;140425 wrote:
I have not focused on the Dialogs, but from what i read of his Treatise, Berkley did not deny material objects or matter of materials in general. [emphasis added]

What he denied was the matter of the philosophical realists, i.e. the unthinking substance and unthought matter.
The critical variable here is 'unthinking' and 'unthought'.
He repeated this many times in his Treatise.

What Berkeley deny is this thing called Matter or corporeal substance of philosophical realism. [emphasis added] ...


Those two bolded sentences contradict each other. Berkeley unequivocally denied material objects, which is stated quite clearly in the passages you quote in your own post, and which you assert in the second sentence of yours that I bolded.

What people imagine are material objects are, according to Berkeley, really sets of perceptions or mental images. True enough, he did not deny the reality of a rock; but according to Berkeley, a rock is not a material object, but is really a set of perceptions, and nothing more. According to Berkeley, "the very Notion of what is called Matter or Corporeal Substance, involves a Contradiction in it."

A Treatise Concerning the Principles of Human Knowledge - Wikisource
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 08:08 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140405 wrote:
The argument is that the object and its perception cannot be separated. It is you who are introducing the reification by saying there is a thing, apart from the perception of it. The argument is saying that the 'material substance' is what cannot be demonstrated - but only inferred by reason. Which is what I think you are doing. It may be a reasonable inference, but it is an inference nonetheless.

---------- Post added 03-17-2010 at 11:27 AM ----------



The point is one of identity. The object may be exactly the same, but to one person, they are something you smoke, and to another, something you stick in a hole. So which is it really? There is no definite answer to that question apart from: it depends.


I agree that I am reifying things. How can one reify things, since it is by making things into things that we reify them. The perception of something is not, itself, something. It is the thing perceived. Things appear in particular ways, but there are on such things as appearances over an above the things that appear. When I observe a table, what makes you think I am drawing an inference? I am drawing an inference when I infer from the fact that I have just observed the table in the room, that there is a table in the room. What would I be drawing an inference from when I simply observe the table? The appearance of a table?

How would what you smoke, and what you plug into the wall, be the same. In what respect (if any)? Simply calling both a "cigar" does not make them resemble one another. And the fact that two things resemble each other certainly does not mean that they are the same thing. Or, rather, the same kind of thing. There is a difference between, "identical" and, "same".
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 03:02 pm
@kennethamy,
Berkeley's argument is that 'the appearance of the table' is all that is available. We infer a 'material substance' on the basis of the visual and tactile perceptions we have of the object, but there is really nothing beyond the various perceptions that we have. He will always ask, if you assert a real table above and beyond these perceptions, you are inferring something which is not given in actual experience. And experience always has to be in some mind, either yours or the Absolute Mind in which all things are eternally perceived. I think that is his argument in a nutshell. It is an argument about the nature of reality. I am naturally inclined to be sympathetic to it, but I understand why many wouldn't.

The other things that interests me about Berkeley, and where I think a real critique could be made of him in his own terms, is that I think he is nominalist, rather than realist. As he is nominalist, there is no grounds in his thought for universals. As there are no universals, I find it hard to see how he understands the nature of logic and mathematics. That is something I would like to look into.

As regards the separate argument of 'the identity of material particulars' - the point of this argument is to show that what we regard as the identity of a particular thing is very much a matter of conventional designation. The meaning and identity of an object is not directly given in experience, but again is inferred on the basis of what we know about it and how we interact with things of that kind. It can be argued on this basis that nothing has any absolute, real or final identity of its own. (This is actually an argument based on Buddhist logic called "Madhyamika".)
.
Given that there is a conventional agreement as to what things are, then the laws of the excluded middle and the like apply without any problems. As regards all of the hypothetical examples that are discussed in philosophy (the hypothetical chair, the hypothetical apple, and so on) then these conventions are perfectly valid. However when the subject of the discussion is as fundamental as first causes, ultimate origins, or the nature of reality, many of the conventional ways of dealing with objects no longer apply. This, I think, is one of the areas of the very interesting Australian philosopher, Graham Priest, who is a specialist in the topic of dialetheism. I don't understand the technicalities of his thinking, but I do know that the topic of the nature of reality in metaphysics is fraught with contradictions, and I think this is why. There are all sorts of logical difficulties that arise from the elementary observation that in discussions of the nature of reality as such, we are not other to that which we seek to understand.

Anyway I agree Berkeley's argument is very hard to get your head around. There may be very strong arguments against it, but I don't think that he is blatantly silly. I have been prompted to go back and look at the Dialogs again, in that updated edition I referred to above, and I find him a very persuasive and subtle thinker.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 03:09 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;140681 wrote:
Berkeley's argument is that 'the appearance of the table' is all that is available. We infer a 'material substance' on the basis of the visual and tactile perceptions we have of the object, but there is really nothing beyond the various perceptions that we have. He will always ask, if you assert a real table above and beyond these perceptions, you are inferring something which is not given in actual experience. And experience always has to be in some mind, either yours or the Absolute Mind in which all things are eternally perceived. I think that is his argument in a nutshell. It is an argument about the nature of reality. I am naturally inclined to be sympathetic to it, but I understand why many wouldn't.

The other things that interests me about Berkeley, and where I think a real critique could be made of him in his own terms, is that I think he is nominalist, rather than realist. As he is nominalist, there is no grounds in his thought for universals. As there are no universals, I find it hard to see how he understands the nature of logic and mathematics. That is something I would like to look into.

As regards the separate argument of 'the identity of material particulars' - the point of this argument is to show that what we regard as the identity of a particular thing is very much a matter of conventional designation. The meaning and identity of an object is not directly given in experience, but again is inferred on the basis of what we know about it and how we interact with things of that kind. It can be argued on this basis that nothing has any absolute, real or final identity of its own. (This is actually an argument based on Buddhist logic called "Madhyamika".)
.
Given that there is a conventional agreement as to what things are, then the laws of the excluded middle and the like apply without any problems. As regards all of the hypothetical examples that are discussed in philosophy (the hypothetical chair, the hypothetical apple, and so on) then these conventions are perfectly valid. However when the subject of the discussion is as fundamental as first causes, ultimate origins, or the nature of reality, many of the conventional ways of dealing with objects no longer apply. This, I think, is one of the areas of the very interesting Australian philosopher, Graham Priest, who is a specialist in the topic of dialetheism. I don't understand the technicalities of his thinking, but I do know that the topic of the nature of reality in metaphysics is fraught with contradictions, and I think this is why. There are all sorts of logical difficulties that arise from the elementary observation that in discussions of the nature of reality as such, we are not other to that which we seek to understand.

Anyway I agree Berkeley's argument is very hard to get your head around. There may be very strong arguments against it, but I don't think that he is blatantly silly. I have been prompted to go back and look at the Dialogs again, in that updated edition I referred to above, and I find him a very persuasive and subtle thinker.


It seems to me that before we examine arguments against Berkeley, we ought to examine Berkeley's own arguments for his view.

Berkeley's argument is that 'the appearance of the table' is all that is available.

Of course, that is not an argument at all. It is an assertion. What we need is an argument for that assertion. Preferably, a good argument. Since it is not, in any case, a common intuition that "appearances are all we have". Most of us, in our saner moments, think we have tables.

(Yes, Berkeley is clearly a nominalist, and is therefore, an atheist when it comes to abstract entities).
 
Pyrrho
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 03:16 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;140683 wrote:
It seems to me that before we examine arguments against Berkeley, we ought to examine Berkeley's own arguments for his view.

Berkeley's argument is that 'the appearance of the table' is all that is available.

Of course, that is not an argument at all. It is an assertion. What we need is an argument for that assertion. Preferably, a good argument. Since it is not, in any case, a common intuition that "appearances are all we have". Most of us, in our saner moments, think we have tables.

(Yes, Berkeley is clearly a nominalist, and is therefore, an atheist when it comes to abstract entities).


I think that those of you who wish to discuss things going beyond the scope of the opening post should start a new thread. I realize, you are responding to someone else, but I think that all of this stuff that is not about Johnson's "argument" should be in another thread.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 03:18 pm
@Pyrrho,
Pyrrho;140687 wrote:
I think that those of you who wish to discuss things going beyond the scope of the opening post should start a new thread. I realize, you are responding to someone else, but I think that all of this stuff that is not about Johnson's "argument" should be in another thread.


Could be. I suppose a thread could be started on Berkeley. It doesn't seem to me to make a lot of difference.
 
Pyrrho
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 03:30 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;140688 wrote:
Could be. I suppose a thread could be started on Berkeley. It doesn't seem to me to make a lot of difference.


I think it matters because the on-topic posts get lost in the clutter of other things. For example, you still have not responded to my reply to one of your posts. My reply is post 180:

http://www.philosophyforum.com/philosophy-forums/branches-philosophy/metaphysics/7708-did-samuel-johnson-misunderstand-george-berkeley-4.html#post140304

You might also want to read the last part of something I posted in reply to someone else, which was post 182:

http://www.philosophyforum.com/philosophy-forums/branches-philosophy/metaphysics/7708-did-samuel-johnson-misunderstand-george-berkeley-4.html#post140308

Unless, of course, I have missed your reply in all of the clutter. In which case, kindly direct me to it.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 03:36 pm
@Pyrrho,
Pyrrho;140696 wrote:
I think it matters because the on-topic posts get lost in the clutter of other things. For example, you still have not responded to my reply to one of your posts. My reply is post 180:

http://www.philosophyforum.com/philosophy-forums/branches-philosophy/metaphysics/7708-did-samuel-johnson-misunderstand-george-berkeley-4.html#post140304

You might also want to read the last part of something I posted in reply to someone else, which was post 182:

http://www.philosophyforum.com/philosophy-forums/branches-philosophy/metaphysics/7708-did-samuel-johnson-misunderstand-george-berkeley-4.html#post140308

Unless, of course, I have missed your reply in all of the clutter. In which case, kindly direct me to it.


I have not replied, but sometimes (not necessarily those times) I don't have anything intelligent to say.

---------- Post added 03-17-2010 at 05:39 PM ----------

Pyrrho;140304 wrote:
You evidently do not get the point of the magician example. Johnson did not prove that he kicked a material object, or even that there was a material object to be kicked. In order to refute Berkeley, he needs to do that. Kicking a stone proves nothing, just like my magician example does not prove that he can turn water into wine, even if he really has that ability. You do agree, don't you, that if you saw a magic act, you would not simply believe the appearance was real, right? But suppose it was real. It being real would not prove it is real, and that is the point; that is why kicking a stone, material or otherwise, is insufficient to prove anything about what Berkeley was saying.


I don't understand why, if Johnson kicked a material object (the stone) that would not prove that Berkeley was wrong when he denied there were material objects. Could you explain that?
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Wed 17 Mar, 2010 04:48 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;140683 wrote:


Berkeley's argument is that 'the appearance of the table' is all that is available.

Of course, that is not an argument at all. It is an assertion.


There is an argument, to which you have so far failed to respond. Berkeley says that we have no grounds for believing there is a material substance apart from the perception (tactile, visual, and so on). You have asserted that there is a material substance apart from the perception. It would seem therefore that your argument is the one with something to prove. You have to prove that there is a substance apart from the perception of it. So, again, how do you demonstrate that there is a substantial object apart from the perception of it?

---------- Post added 03-18-2010 at 09:50 AM ----------

I am making the same point as Pyrrho.
 
 

 
Copyright © 2024 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 12/25/2024 at 08:56:42