Wittgenstein and phenomenology

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kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 03:51 pm
@Insty,
Insty;130034 wrote:
Again, this is incorrect, and the example is inapt. The statement "all dogs are dogs" is true a priori. We know this prior to, and independent of, any experience, because it's a tautology, and any statement of the form, "All Xs are Xs" is necessarily true.



What is incorrect? You have just agreed with me.
 
Insty
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 04:26 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;130097 wrote:
What is incorrect? You have just agreed with me.


No, I'm afraid I haven't. Here's what you said:

kennethamy;129987 wrote:


For example, we learn the meaning of the word "dog" empirically. But, when we have learned the word "dog", and we understand want the statement, all dogs are dogs, means, we then know, a priori, that it is true, that all dogs are dogs. That all dogs are dogs is not an empirical contingent truth. It is an a priori, and necessary truth.

You say here that after we first learn the meaning of the word "dog" empirically, we can then know that the statement "All dogs are dogs" is true. (The italicization of "then" is yours, not mine). The reason your example is inapt is that I don't need to know the meaning of the word "dog" (empirically or in any other way) to know that "all dogs are dogs" is true. Any statement of the form, "All Xs are Xs" are tautologically true. I don't need to know what "X" is.

I will also repeat the rest of my post:

Quote:
Furthermore, the examples you've used represent precisely the kind of linguistic analysis that W wasn't advocating. For W, the important thing was to look and see how the language games are actually played. He wasn't interested in trying to arrive at general principles or observations about the meaning of words like "existence" independent of their use in particular language games or across various contexts. On the contrary. And he would have thought that the expression "all dogs are dogs" was probably meaningless.

Perhaps you can give an example from the Investigations, or from any of W's later work, in which he engages in the kind of "a priori" reflection that you're talking about.
I understand the view you're presenting. I don't understand why you think W holds that view. Can you point to anything in PI or OC that supports your view? If so, I'm sure it would help clear things up.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 04:45 pm
@Insty,
Insty;130114 wrote:
No, I'm afraid I haven't. Here's what you said:


You say here that after we first learn the meaning of the word "dog" empirically, we can then know that the statement "All dogs are dogs" is true. (The italicization of "then" is yours, not mine). The reason your example is inapt is that I don't need to know the meaning of the word "dog" (empirically or in any other way) to know that "all dogs are dogs" is true. Any statement of the form, "All Xs are Xs" are tautologically true. I don't need to know what "X" is.

.


Funny. "War is war" is not a tautology, nor is, "business is business".

But to make you happy, I will change my example to, "All bachelors are unmarried men". Now, am I right?
 
Insty
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 05:37 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;130120 wrote:
Funny. "War is war" is not a tautology, nor is, "business is business".

Probably not, but neither of these is a statement of the form: "All Xs are Xs."
kennethamy;130120 wrote:

But to make you happy, I will change my example to, "All bachelors are unmarried men". Now, am I right?

No, this is another counterexample to your view. You were trying to give examples of a priori conceptual analysis in which we first learn the meaning of a concept empirically and then somehow extract a priori knowledge from it by reflection. I can know that "All bachelors are unmarried men" is true, prior to, and independent of, any experience of the world. The statement is true by definition.

Continuing along these lines is simply getting farther afield. Again, if you could point to some examples in W that support or elucidate your view, it would help. I can only repeat that, on its face, the idea that W's later work consists of a priori conceptual analysis -- or a priori anything -- runs completely contrary to everything that's going on the PI or in OC.

In his later work, W is telling us that if we want to get clear about what words mean, we should look at how they're used in everyday language games, and that philosophical mistakes arise when we try to compare our language to an a priori, idealized system of linguistic rules.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 06:00 pm
@Insty,
Insty;130126 wrote:
Probably not, but neither of these is a statement of the form: "All Xs are Xs."

.


They aren't? All war is war is not of the form, "All Xs are Ys" How did that happen? (I really must get a new pair of glasses).
 
Insty
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 06:25 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;130127 wrote:
They aren't? All war is war is not of the form, "All Xs are Ys" How did that happen? (I really must get a new pair of glasses).

Do you mean to say that it's of the form "All Xs are Ys" or "All Xs are Xs"?

Very Happy
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 06:27 pm
@Insty,
Insty;130135 wrote:
Do you mean to say that it's of the form "All Xs are Ys" or "All Xs are Xs"?

Very Happy


Sorry, the latter.
 
Insty
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 06:50 pm
@Deckard,
Those statements are not of the form "All Xs are Xs:" If they were, they would be rendered: "All wars are wars" or "All businesses are businesses," in which case they would be tautologous.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 07:01 pm
@Insty,
Insty;130144 wrote:
Those statements are not of the form "All Xs are Xs:" If they were, they would be rendered: "All wars are wars" or "All businesses are businesses," in which case they would be tautologous.


But they are not tautologies, Each of them is not true. Some wars are not wars, and some businesses are not businesses. Some wars never come to fighting, and some businesses are just fronts for illegal operations.
 
Insty
 
Reply Fri 19 Feb, 2010 07:14 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;130145 wrote:
But they are not tautologies, Each of them is not true. Some wars are not wars, and some businesses are not businesses. Some wars never come to fighting, and some businesses are just fronts for illegal operations.


A war that doesn't come to fighting is still a war. Otherwise, it wouldn't make sense to call it a "war" in the first place, and it wouldn't be a war, but something else, that never came to fighting.

But these digressions are too much. If this thread ever gets back on track, I will be interested to see the discussion. Until then, I'm afraid I shall take my leave. Smile
 
jgweed
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 07:58 am
@Deckard,
To say that "I can know that "All bachelors are unmarried men" is true, prior to, and independent of, any experience of the world. The statement is true by definition" seems to ignore the possibility that being true by definition is not independent of experience, since language is experienced, and that experience tells us what language IS and how to use it, in addition to the content of the assertion.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 08:25 am
@jgweed,
jgweed;130239 wrote:
To say that "I can know that "All bachelors are unmarried men" is true, prior to, and independent of, any experience of the world. The statement is true by definition" seems to ignore the possibility that being true by definition is not independent of experience, since language is experienced, and that experience tells us what language IS and how to use it, in addition to the content of the assertion.


Compare the sentence, "All bachelors are unhappy" with the sentence, "all bachelors are unmarried". The latter statement can be known to be true just from understanding what it means. You need not do any further investigation. But the first sentence is not like that. You can know what it means, but not know whether it is true or false. To determine that, you have to do further investigation. You have to have further experiences.

Our learning what the two sentences mean depends, of course, on experience. But knowing whether the first sentence is true or false depends on experience, while knowing whether the second sentence is true or false does not depend on experience. The first is known (if known) a posteriori. The second is known (if known) a priori.

So, understanding is both a sufficient and necessary condition for knowing the truth value of a priori sentences; but understanding is a necessary, but not sufficient condition for knowing the truth value of a posteriori sentences.

(In all this I am assuming that all a priori sentences are analytic, and all a posteriori sentences are synthetic).
 
jgweed
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 08:55 am
@Deckard,
"The latter statement can be known to be true just from understanding what it means." Just so. But my question was about what is entailed in "understanding what it means" since language may be seen as a particular kind of experience. We know the definitions from looking up the words in a dictionary, and we know in the same way what a tautological utterance is. The sentence doesn't seem to have quite the same status as "A=A."
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 09:06 am
@jgweed,
jgweed;130246 wrote:
"The latter statement can be known to be true just from understanding what it means." Just so. But my question was about what is entailed in "understanding what it means" since language may be seen as a particular kind of experience. We know the definitions from looking up the words in a dictionary, and we know in the same way what a tautological utterance is. The sentence doesn't seem to have quite the same status as "A=A."


I suppose you mean that learning language relies on experience, and that is so. But I don't think that anyone denies that. On the other hand, some philosophers have held that at least some of the concepts we mean with our words are not acquired from experience, but are innate, and are a priori concepts. So that a priori knowledge is thoroughly a priori, and uncontaminated by experience. Plato certainly held something of that sort.

It would be held that "all bachelors are unmarried men" was reducible to All A B are A B, by the substitution of definitions. (All unmarried men are unmarried men).
 
Insty
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 10:29 am
@jgweed,
jgweed;130239 wrote:
To say that "I can know that "All bachelors are unmarried men" is true, prior to, and independent of, any experience of the world. The statement is true by definition" seems to ignore the possibility that being true by definition is not independent of experience, since language is experienced, and that experience tells us what language IS and how to use it, in addition to the content of the assertion.


I wouldn't agree that language is experienced or that it's something we use, exactly, but I think there's something correct in the observation above, from W's point of view. Statements of the sort, "All bachelors are unmarried men" don't really have much of a use in ordinary life, except in teaching a person how to use the word "bachelor."

Which is why it's clear that a wrong turn has been taken if people are discussing W's view by insisting that he's engaged in a priori analysis of some kind or by reference to traditional philosophical examples of tautological propositions. To try to force his thought into this kind of framework would be like trying to formulate Heidegger's argument in B&T by using the Cartesian vocabulary of subject and object (such as Sartre is often accused of having attempted). Even if it were possible to do such a thing, why would anyone want to, when Heidegger is clearly rejecting it?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 01:13 pm
@Insty,
Insty;130279 wrote:
I wouldn't agree that language is experienced or that it's something we use, exactly, but I think there's something correct in the observation above, from W's point of view. Statements of the sort, "All bachelors are unmarried men" don't really have much of a use in ordinary life, except in teaching a person how to use the word "bachelor."

Which is why it's clear that a wrong turn has been taken if people are discussing W's view by insisting that he's engaged in a priori analysis of some kind or by reference to traditional philosophical examples of tautological propositions. To try to force his thought into this kind of framework would be like trying to formulate Heidegger's argument in B&T by using the Cartesian vocabulary of subject and object (such as Sartre is often accused of having attempted). Even if it were possible to do such a thing, why would anyone want to, when Heidegger is clearly rejecting it?


I agree, so it is a good thing that no one (to my knowledge) is trying to do such a silly thing.
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 02:16 pm
@jgweed,
jgweed;130246 wrote:
"The latter statement can be known to be true just from understanding what it means." Just so. But my question was about what is entailed in "understanding what it means" since language may be seen as a particular kind of experience. We know the definitions from looking up the words in a dictionary, and we know in the same way what a tautological utterance is. The sentence doesn't seem to have quite the same status as "A=A."



Good point. Language itself is learned from experience. So tautologies in a language really don't in the strictest sense provide a priori knowledge. Even the language of mathematics must be learned first from experience before we can recognize a tautology as a tautology.
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 02:32 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;130344 wrote:
Good point. Language itself is learned from experience. So tautologies in a language really don't in the strictest sense provide a priori knowledge. Even the language of mathematics must be learned first from experience before we can recognize a tautology as a tautology.


But without experience in mathematics, can't we know X=X? What I mean is, I think we can know some X is some X, without knowing anything about mathematics. We must know what "X" and "=" mean to communicate the thought, but that doesn't mean we didn't understand the notion previously, does it?
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 02:42 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;130352 wrote:
But without experience in mathematics, can't we know X=X? What I mean is, I think we can know some X is some X, without knowing anything about mathematics. We must know what "X" and "=" mean to communicate the thought, but that doesn't mean we understand the notion previously, does it?


I don't know. This touches the difficult question of whether we can think without a language. I'm inclined to say that we can't think without a language, but I don't suggest that I can prove it. (I just realized how others might think of thinking differently. Do animals think? I suppose they do. We need a verb for thinking in a language. Something narrower.)
 
Zetherin
 
Reply Sat 20 Feb, 2010 02:45 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;130359 wrote:
I don't know. This touches the difficult question of whether we can think without a language. I'm inclined to say that we can't think without a language, but I don't suggest that I can prove it. (I just realized how others might think of thinking differently. Do animals think? I suppose they do. We need a verb for thinking in a language. Something narrower.)


Yes, I've always been curious about that. I do not know exactly how language correlates with thought. I have heard that we think in language, but I'm inclined to think that we can think without language. I'd like to learn more about this - what exactly does language contribute to our thought?
 
 

 
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