@paulhanke,
paulhanke wrote:... I'm wondering if to say that "I trust my senses and my reasoning" is too inclusive and should just be "I trust in my senses" ... that is, aren't the experiential products of reason "self-evident"? ... the "trust" problem only arises once you try to assert that the experience of reason in any way corresponds to something (as is the case with any experience)...
I'm a little lost... How can the experience of reason
not correspond to something?
I think of the expression, "self evident" as applying to some proposition of truth. In other words, one might argue (as I recall Theaetetus may have offered) that the claim, "I exist" or "I am" is a self evident truth. On that view, it requires no confirmation, no proof.
I don't understand how we could say that the products of reason are self evident. For example, if I look out the window and observe ice on the ground, I reflect for a moment (reason) and declare, "It is cold outside." If someone asks, "How do you know?" I can offer as confirmation both my sensory experience (I saw ice) and my reasoning (ice does not form unless temperatures fall below freezing). My reasoning (not to mention my sensory experience) could very easily be faulty. Maybe it was cold yesterday, but it's warm today, and yesterday's ice hasn't thawed yet.
So I am still stuck on the idea that my claim to know something depends on my trust in my reasoning process (which may or may not be reliable). I'm assuming this is true whether or not I am fully in charge of that process. I can make myself sit down and work out a math problem ("the answer is 43.12"), or I might be half asleep, and a thought might occur to me "out of the blue" ("Hey, I should run for city council").
The former requires that I exercise my will. The latter is apparently a subconscious function of the brain. In either case, though, if I run with the conclusion (assume that I know something) that knowing depends on my trust in the reasoning process that yielded the conclusion.