numbers vs. words

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fast
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 08:37 am
@Ahab,
Ahab;157533 wrote:
Really? People do refer to what they have imagined.

Your claim is false.

You do not mean what I mean when I use the term "refer to."

My claim is true.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 08:40 am
@Ahab,
Ahab;157533 wrote:
Really? People do refer to what they have imagined.

Your claim is false.


That is like saying that it is false that existence is not a property, because when we say of something that it exists, we are ascribing a property to it.
 
fast
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 08:44 am
@ACB,
ACB;157499 wrote:
If you assume from the outset that numbers exist, you can "prove" that they have properties. And if you assume from the outset that they have properties, you can "prove" that they exist. But you can make exactly the same assumptions and "proofs" for fictional characters. So why would you be wrong to do so? (No question-begging, please.)


The assumption that numbers have properties isn't faulty, but the assumption that fictional characters have properties is faulty.

Quote:
One further question. Are ideas, and their contents, objects? If so, why cannot a fictional character be the content of an idea of a particular set of properties, and therefore exist? Such an idea could be shared between different people, and represented in literature, art and drama. It would then make sense to say that it is represented correctly or incorrectly, according to whether the representation corresponds properly with the established idea.
We have to distinguish between 1) our ideas and 2) what our ideas are ideas of. Ideas exist, and what ideas refer to may or may not. The idea of a fictional idea does exist, but what the idea is an idea of (namely, a fictional character) does not exist.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 09:32 am
@fast,
fast;157537 wrote:
You do not mean what I mean when I use the term "refer to."

My claim is true.


My usage is in accord with standard usage. You are free to stipulate a different usage for 'refer'.
Another poster on this board claimed that rocks have experiences because he stipulated a different usage for 'experience'. I'm sure he thinks it is also true that his claim is true.

If you relly think your claim is true then all you are doing is saying you think we should change the way we use such words as 'refer' and 'representation'.
 
ACB
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 09:38 am
@fast,
fast;157540 wrote:
The assumption that numbers have properties isn't faulty, but the assumption that fictional characters have properties is faulty.


And why is that? Why cannot fictional characters be non-concrete objects?

fast;157540 wrote:
We have to distinguish between 1) our ideas and 2) what our ideas are ideas of. Ideas exist, and what ideas refer to may or may not. The idea of a fictional idea does exist, but what the idea is an idea of (namely, a fictional character) does not exist.


If neither Santa Claus nor Sherlock Holmes existed at all, then the idea of Santa Claus would be absolutely identical to the idea of Sherlock Holmes, since they would both be completely empty ideas. But the two ideas are not identical. How do you account for that?
 
fast
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 09:46 am
@Ahab,
[QUOTE=Ahab;157554]My usage is in accord with standard usage. You are free to stipulate a different usage for 'refer'. [/QUOTE]Yes, I am free to do so, but I am not doing so, for my usage is in accord with standard usage. I am not using a stipulative definition and trying to pawn it off as if it's a lexical definition. What I am doing is using it as fluent users of our language collectively use it, and because of that, I am using it as it's used in our lexicon.

Now, you may have a case to show that the word is ambiguous.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 09:48 am
@ACB,
ACB;157557 wrote:
And why is that? Why cannot fictional characters be non-concrete objects?

If neither Santa Claus nor Sherlock Holmes existed at all, then the idea of Santa Claus would be absolutely identical to the idea of Sherlock Holmes, since they would both be completely empty ideas. But the two ideas are not identical. How do you account for that?


Good luck ACB. All of this has been pointed out to Fast literally thousands of times over the past few years.

I think Ughiabu was wise to withdraw from this time-wasting thread. I'm going to take my exist too.
 
fast
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 10:01 am
@ACB,
[QUOTE=ACB;157557]And why is that? Why cannot fictional characters be non-concrete objects?[/QUOTE]An object either exists or it doesn't. If it exists, then it's either concrete or abstract. If it doesn't exist, then it's neither concrete nor abstract. Fictional characters do not exist, so fictional characters are neither concrete nor abstract.

Fictional characters are not objects at all. They don't exist.

[QUOTE]If neither Santa Claus nor Sherlock Holmes existed at all, then the idea of Santa Claus would be absolutely identical to the idea of Sherlock Holmes, since they would both be completely empty ideas. But the two ideas are not identical. How do you account for that?[/QUOTE]
I think you're confusing what an idea is. An idea is a mental entity. It's a product of the mind. Some might even say they're quasi-abstract since they do not have location yet exist in time. See, no neurosurgeon can find ideas in others through brain surgery, yet people do have ideas now they once never had.

If you're not confusing what an idea is, reword what you said being careful not to confuse ideas with what ideas are ideas of.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 01:10 pm
@Ahab,
Ahab;157554 wrote:
My usage is in accord with standard usage. You are free to stipulate a different usage for 'refer'.
Another poster on this board claimed that rocks have experiences because he stipulated a different usage for 'experience'. I'm sure he thinks it is also true that his claim is true.

If you relly think your claim is true then all you are doing is saying you think we should change the way we use such words as 'refer' and 'representation'.


Yes, and our usage of "exists" as a property is in accordance with standard usage too. Only, the standard usage is of surface grammar, not deep grammar. We are really not talking about meaning (semantics) here so much as we are talking about syntax. The meaning of "exists" is not problematic. The grammar of exists is what is problematic.

---------- Post added 04-28-2010 at 03:22 PM ----------

ACB;157557 wrote:




If neither Santa Claus nor Sherlock Holmes existed at all, then the idea of Santa Claus would be absolutely identical to the idea of Sherlock Holmes, since they would both be completely empty ideas. But the two ideas are not identical. How do you account for that?


What does it mean to say that something "does not exist at all"? Do you believe that existence is a matter of degree? Somethings, like horses, exist to a greater degree than do unicorns, but unicorns exist at least a little? Of course the two ideas are not identical. They are quite different. But how would that imply that Holmes and Claus are not identical or that they are identical? How could they be either identical or not unless they exist? As I pointed out, in the predicate calculus, the expression, "X =X" is one way of expressing the proposition that X exists. Unless X exists it cannot have the property of being self-identical. And everything that exists is self-identical. Law of Identity.

"Logic is logic, that's all I can say". Oliver Wendell Holmes.
 
ACB
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 03:36 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;157605 wrote:
What does it mean to say that something "does not exist at all"? Do you believe that existence is a matter of degree?


No, I do not. By "does not exist at all" I meant "is not even an abstract object".

kennethamy;157605 wrote:
Of course the two ideas are not identical. They are quite different. But how would that imply that Holmes and Claus are not identical or that they are identical?


I was not claiming that Holmes and Claus are identical or not identical. I was arguing as follows:

1. Let us suppose that Sherlock Holmes and Santa Claus do not exist, period. Not as fictional characters, imaginary beings, or anything.

2. Therefore, the idea of Sherlock Holmes is not an idea of anything. It is just an empty idea. It has no content. It is not an idea of anything, because "an idea of X" refers to X, and thus implies that there is an X. And in this case we are supposing that there is no X.

3. The same applies to the idea of Santa Claus.

4. Now, since the idea of Sherlock Holmes and that of Santa Claus are both empty ideas, they (the ideas themselves) are identical as regards their content, for they both have zero content. Zero is identical to zero. (Note here that I am talking about the properties of the ideas themselves. I am not claiming that there are any properties of the contents; obviously there could not be, if there are no contents.)

5. If two ideas are identical as regards their content (because they have none), then they are indistinguishable.

6. But the idea of Sherlock Holmes is in fact distinguishable from that of Santa Claus.

7. Therefore (1) must be false.

Logical?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 03:52 pm
@ACB,
ACB;157642 wrote:
No, I do not. By "does not exist at all" I meant "is not even an abstract object".



I was not claiming that Holmes and Claus are identical or not identical. I was arguing as follows:

1. Let us suppose that Sherlock Holmes and Santa Claus do not exist, period. Not as fictional characters, imaginary beings, or anything.

2. Therefore, the idea of Sherlock Holmes is not an idea of anything. It is just an empty idea. It has no content. It is not an idea of anything, because "an idea of X" refers to X, and thus implies that there is an X. And in this case we are supposing that there is no X.

3. The same applies to the idea of Santa Claus.

4. Now, since the idea of Sherlock Holmes and that of Santa Claus are both empty ideas, they (the ideas themselves) are identical as regards their content, for they both have zero content. Zero is identical to zero. (Note here that I am talking about the properties of the ideas themselves. I am not claiming that there are any properties of the contents; obviously there could not be, if there are no contents.)

5. If two ideas are identical as regards their content (because they have none), then they are indistinguishable.

6. But the idea of Sherlock Holmes is in fact distinguishable from that of Santa Claus.

7. Therefore (1) must be false.

Logical?


But 2. does not follow from 1. Although I really don't know what you mean by an empty idea. The idea of Sherlock Holmes is not empty, although Sherlock Holmes does not exist. That idea of Sherlock Holmes is the idea of a detective who lives on Baker Street in late 19th century London, and solves crimes, and who every once in a while says the words, "Elementary, my dear Watson". I know that 2 does not follow from 1 because 1 is true, and 2 is false. And a false proposition cannot follow from a true proposition. But what makes you think that the idea of Sherlock Holmes is an empty idea?
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 05:01 pm
@fast,
fast;157512 wrote:
Santa and the character depicted as having the name Santa are not one in the same. We know the character exists, for it was created, and if in addition to that, Santa also existed, then at least two different things exist.

I don't hold that the meaning of "existence" changes. Things exist (if they do) in the only one way they can. The character exists, but Santa does not. The Santa character is not Santa.

When Ann says, "Santa Claus wears boots," she is correct, for she is simply talking in shorthand for "The character depicted as having the name Santa is depicted as wearing boots." That, of course, it true--not false.

When Bob says, "Santa Claus wears boots," he is incorrect, for he isn't talking about the character depicted as having the name Santa but is actually talking about a non-existent entity that would have the name Santa if he did exist.

By the way, I avoid use of the phrase "exists as." It's terribly misleading.


? That's precisely what's wrong; you have the situation backwards. No fictional character exists with that name. No physical person exists with that name either.

If "Sherlock Holmes is a detective" appeared in one of Arthur Conan Doyle stories, then that token sentence would not be true--since that token is what we call "a bit of fiction" since "Sherlock" does not even have a referent within the story.

But what if a child asks his mother, "What does Sherlock Holmes do for a living again"? And the mother responds, "Sherlock Holmes is a detective" then the mother appears to be saying something true. And if she is, then Sherlock appears to be an abstract object. And this is where the problems begin because, as we know, abstract objects cannot exemplify physical properties. So,

(G) "Sherlock Holmes is a detective"

is not true inside or outside stories because no entity whatsoever has that name since fictional character are just that: fictional characters--so they don't exist. So (G) is false in both places. I think the best option we have is to adopt what SEP says about it, here:

Quote:
Those who endorse a platonistic view of fictional objects maintain that there is no good paraphrase of sentences like (G), but one might question this. For instance, one might maintain that (G) can be paraphrased by a sentence like this:
[INDENT]'Sherlock Holmes is a detective' is true-in-the-Holmes-stories.
[/INDENT]If we read (G) in this way, then it is not be about Sherlock Holmes at all; rather, it is about the Sherlock Holmes stories. Thus, in order to believe (G), so interpreted, one would have to believe in the existence of these stories. Now, one might try to take an anti-platonistic view of the nature of stories, but there are problems with such views, and so we might end up with a platonistic view here anyway - a view that takes sentences like (G) to be about stories and stories to be abstract objects of some sort, e.g., ordered sets of propositions.[15] Which of these platonistic views is superior can be settled by determining which (if either) captures the correct interpretation of sentences like (G) - i.e., by determining whether ordinary people who utter sentences like (G) are best interpreted as talking about stories or fictional characters.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 05:10 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;157671 wrote:


(G) "Sherlock Holmes is a detective"

is not true inside or outside stories because no entity whatsoever has that name since fictional character are just that: fictional characters--so they don't exist. So (G) is false in both places. I think the best option we have is to adopt what SEP says about it, here:


I agree (and it is what I have been saying). And this seems to me fast's view too. At least his is what you call, "anti-Platonic" (a description I think misleading). There are two views: 1. An "anti-Platonic" view, which is almost certainly true, and then, 2. What is the correct explanation of fictions, which may be somewhat problematic, although I think the general line that we are talking about stories is true.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 05:20 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;157673 wrote:
I agree (and it is what I have been saying). And this seems to me fast's view too. At least his is what you call, "anti-Platonic" (a description I think misleading). There are two views: 1. An "anti-Platonic" view, which is almost certainly true, and then, 2. What is the correct explanation of fictions, which may be somewhat problematic, although I think the general line that we are talking about stories is true.


I sincerely hope we're all on the same page with that.

I do take stories to be really existent abstract objects, but not fictional characters. But Fast is making a very similar distinction (which is mentioned in the SEP) between Santa as exemplifying properties and Santa as encoding properties. And that view presupposes Santa is an abstract object. But if he is an abstract object, then its strange to say that the sentences written in fictional stories are "a bit of fiction" but somehow those sentences uttered outside stories are true. That's just absurd, and seems backwards.

So I find myself saying that we can talk about stories, but we sure can't talk about fictional characters--to countenance otherwise leads down either Meingong's path, or maintains that fictional characters are abstract objects. And it seems to me both views are false.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 05:23 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;157679 wrote:
I sincerely hope we're all on the same page with that.

I do take stories to be really existent abstract objects, but not fictional characters. But Fast is making a very similar distinction (which is mentioned in the SEP) between Santa as exemplifying properties and Santa as encoding properties. And that view presupposes Santa is an abstract object. But if he is, then its strange to say statements within fictional stories are "a bit of fiction" but somehow our sentences uttered outside stories are true. That's just absurd, and is totally backwards.

So I find myself saying that we can talk about stories, but we sure can't talk about fictional characters--to countenance otherwise leads down either Meingong's path, or maintains that fictional characters are abstract objects. And it seems to me both views are false.


Yes, the phrase, "talking about X" is an interesting one. Does it imply that X exists? I remember reading an article on it a while ago, but for the life of me, I don't remember what it said.
 
ACB
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 06:09 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;157648 wrote:
But what makes you think that the idea of Sherlock Holmes is an empty idea?


I do not think it is an empty idea, but I think it would be so if (1) of my previous post were true. I do not understand how the idea of Sherlock Holmes can be the idea of something if there is no Sherlock Holmes.

As I pointed out before, if I have an idea of X, then X is what I have an idea of. But X cannot be anything if it does not exist. You mentioned intensional properties, but this point has not been pursued much. I think it may hold the key to making progress in this discussion.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 06:39 pm
@ACB,
ACB;157691 wrote:
I do not think it is an empty idea, but I think it would be so if (1) of my previous post were true. I do not understand how the idea of Sherlock Holmes can be the idea of something if there is no Sherlock Holmes.

As I pointed out before, if I have an idea of X, then X is what I have an idea of. But X cannot be anything if it does not exist. You mentioned intensional properties, but this point has not been pursued much. I think it may hold the key to making progress in this discussion.


This shouldn't be problematic. It doesn't seem right to me to say that ideas have to be "ideas of something", anyway. Ideas are just ideas. I can have an idea of a magic golden mountain, and magic golden mountains don't exist. But surely I can have a magic-golden-mountain-idea. The idea itself is a magic-golden-mountian-idea. I can talk about that idea, entertain it with others, think about that idea, adding and substracting certain qualities to it, and even write about that idea in fiction. But it is not an idea of something.

This is why it just sounds silly to say, "I have an idea, but that idea is empty." If your idea is empty, then you don't even have an idea. It's simply not there. It's like saying, "I am having a thought right now, but that thought isn't about anything." If your thought is not about anything, then you don't have a thought at all.
 
north
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 06:47 pm
@ACB,
Quote:
Originally Posted by kennethamy http://www.philosophyforum.com/images/PHBlue/buttons/viewpost.gif
But what makes you think that the idea of Sherlock Holmes is an empty idea?




ACB;157691 wrote:
I do not think it is an empty idea, but I think it would be so if (1) of my previous post were true. I do not understand how the idea of Sherlock Holmes can be the idea of something if there is no Sherlock Holmes.


Quote:

the context in which Sherlock Holmes came to be in the first place

based on his way of thinking , upon.......
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 07:56 pm
@ACB,
ACB;157691 wrote:
I do not think it is an empty idea, but I think it would be so if (1) of my previous post were true. I do not understand how the idea of Sherlock Holmes can be the idea of something if there is no Sherlock Holmes.

As I pointed out before, if I have an idea of X, then X is what I have an idea of. But X cannot be anything if it does not exist. You mentioned intensional properties, but this point has not been pursued much. I think it may hold the key to making progress in this discussion.


Why can't I have an idea of Sherlock Holmes when Sherlock Holmes does not exist? Indeed, the question is self-answering, since we do have an idea of Sherlock Holmes and Sherlock Holmes does not exist. I just described the content of the idea of Sherlock Holmes. You are confusing the content of an idea with the referent (if any) of the idea. The content of an idea is that which is instantiated if the idea has a referent, but the content is not, itself, the instantiation of the idea. You might as well ask how I can dream of being in India and riding on an elephant when I am not in India riding on an elephant. The answer to that question is there is no mystery about it, for that is exactly what happens. The question implies a "counter-evidential intuition". It asks how something can be true, implying that it is not true, when, in fact, all of our evidence is that what is implied is not true is, in fact true. So people have asked, how is it possible that life arose from "dead" matter, implying that it could not have done so, when all the evidence we have is that is precisely what did occur. Thus the name, "counter-evidential intuition".
 
north
 
Reply Wed 28 Apr, 2010 08:21 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;157718 wrote:
Why can't I have an idea of Sherlock Holmes when Sherlock Holmes does not exist? Indeed, the question is self-answering, since we do have an idea of Sherlock Holmes and Sherlock Holmes does not exist. I just described the content of the idea of Sherlock Holmes. You are confusing the content of an idea with the referent (if any) of the idea. The content of an idea is that which is instantiated if the idea has a referent, but the content is not, itself, the instantiation of the idea. You might as well ask how I can dream of being in India and riding on an elephant when I am not in India riding on an elephant. The answer to that question is there is no mystery about it, for that is exactly what happens. The question implies a "counter-evidential intuition".


Quote:
It asks how something can be true, implying that it is not true, when, in fact, all of our evidence is that what is implied is not true is, in fact true.


reason it out





Quote:
So people have asked, how is it possible that life arose from "dead" matter, implying that it could not have done so, when all the evidence we have is that is precisely what did occur. Thus the name, "counter-evidential intuition".


then we ask " what is water "?
 
 

 
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