ontology is fallible

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kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:03 am
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;153871 wrote:
Well put. It seems that science is founded on logic and ontology. For me, ontology and logic are one. For beings are logical structures. Science uses math, hugely, of course, and yet what is number? What is the number one, just to start with an "easy" one?


"For me so-and-so" = "I believe so-and-so". But, that is not an argument for so-and-so. It is merely a credo. Philosophy is not religion. You needn't state your beliefs. You need state arguments for your beliefs.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:03 am
@TuringEquivalent,
At least I put forward a sequence of arguments, instead of an exclamation or a single sentence. If you can't recognise them, that is not my problem.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:06 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;153901 wrote:
That is way too deep !:bigsmile:


Indeed. Read it, and you fall out the other side.

---------- Post added 04-19-2010 at 08:10 AM ----------

TuringEquivalent;153910 wrote:
I said " numbers don` t exist". I said it is a "refutation" of mathematical realism, since mathematical realism claims that "numbers do exist"!

Easy, right?


Not a refutation, but a denial. A refutation has to show what is refuted is false. A denial (or rebuttal) does not show that. I cannot refute what you say simply by denying it is true. You are confusing, "refute" with "deny" or, "rebut".

---------- Post added 04-19-2010 at 08:12 AM ----------

jeeprs;153933 wrote:
At least I put forward a sequence of arguments, instead of an exclamation or a single sentence. If you can't recognise them, that is not my problem.


Yes, he confuses "refutation" with, "denial" or "rebuttal". When you confuse words, you confuse thoughts.
 
TuringEquivalent
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:18 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;153933 wrote:
At least I put forward a sequence of arguments, instead of an exclamation or a single sentence. If you can't recognise them, that is not my problem.


I think you are referring to me.

What you gave me is not all that impress. It is just a series of propositions that are typical of Platonism. It is something anyone can do. I really want to read something that is not as typical as what you had just wrote. What about an argument?

I do know platonism, and all the arguments concerning it. The pros, and cons of that position, and other rivaling positions. Do you know it? If you do, show me how platonism compare to fictionism, or structuralism. A summery is not enough for me. You need to see the pro, and cons of your positions.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:24 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;153937 wrote:
I think you are referring to me.


I was indeed referring to you. I shall await further responses, thank you.
 
TuringEquivalent
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:28 am
@TuringEquivalent,
Quote:
Not a refutation, but a denial. A refutation has to show what is refuted is false. A denial (or rebuttal) does not show that. I cannot refute what you say simply by denying it is true. You are confusing, "refute" with "deny" or, "rebut".


I was trying to be ironic in reply to:


Quote:
Godel was a mathematical realist. I think mathematical realism is a very hard position to refute. Most people don't refute it, they simply fail to grasp it.


A failure to grasp a joke, ken.

---------- Post added 04-19-2010 at 07:33 AM ----------

jeeprs;153938 wrote:
I was indeed referring to you. I shall await further responses, thank you.




The attitude...

I gave a series advises of how you might proceed. Perhaps, you will benefit from seeing different positions, and knowing the pros, and cons of platonism. Can you do that?
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:34 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;153939 wrote:
I was trying to be ironic in reply to:




A failure to grasp a joke, ken.


I hope so. (If it was a joke, then the word you want is, "sarcastic", not "ironic"). If it was a joke, then I suppose that Jeeprs did not grasp it too, since he asked for arguments, and not just statements.
 
TuringEquivalent
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:37 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;153942 wrote:
I hope so. (If it was a joke, then the word you want is, "sarcastic", not "ironic"). If it was a joke, then I suppose that Jeeprs did not grasp it too, since he asked for arguments, and not just statements.


Maybe "sarcastic" is the right word.
To my defends, i think gave him an argument:

Quote:

That would be like saying " when i am talking about 2+2=4, i am really talking about sets, and operations that act on those sets". This is not intuitive! The second thing is that it does not do away with ontology, since you would be committed to sets, rather than numbers.



He did not reply. There are two arguments here.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 07:23 am
@TuringEquivalent,
OK, I am not trying to come across 'with attitude'. I don't intend to write a summary of Platonism. It is a very large area of study. The particular argument that interests me here is the one about mathematical realism. It could quite possibly be a fallacious argument, but so far has not been addressed, and requesting a discourse on the pros and cons of Platonism is not relevant, in my view.
 
TuringEquivalent
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 07:44 am
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;153953 wrote:
OK, I am not trying to come across 'with attitude'. I don't intend to write a summary of Platonism. It is a very large area of study. The particular argument that interests me here is the one about mathematical realism. It could quite possibly be a fallacious argument, but so far has not been addressed, and requesting a discourse on the pros and cons of Platonism is not relevant, in my view.


I know now that you probable never read anything on platonism, and if you have, you only have a very basic surface understanding of it. I suggest you read, and understand Platonism in Metaphysics (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy). If you don` t understand, than try amazon.com.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 09:02 am
@TuringEquivalent,
meaning: 'I haven't got a clue how to respond, so let's change the subject'.

Anyone else?
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 04:06 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;153903 wrote:
I can't recall the details of that talk, as I said, but it did demonstrate very convincingly how to derive all of the numbers from 1-9 (what others count?) in terms of sets. But it took 45 minutes to go through it, and I was not a mathematically-literate audience member. I will go back to the site and see if I can find the lecturer's name.

Godel was a mathematical realist. I think mathematical realism is a very hard position to refute. Most people don't refute it, they simply fail to grasp it.


I feel myself moving toward that position. Of course this is not far at all from the real as rational. In fact, the move from transcendental to absolute idealism would seem to imply mathematical realism. It seems to me that Hegel fused Plato and Aristotle. He's a realist as far as ideas go, but asserts that these ideas must be engendered in time. This explains why we seem to invent numbers. And yet a number like pi starts to seem found. It just is the constant in the volume of a sphere, for instance.

If we drop the transcendental distinction, the invention/discovery distinction is questionable. And also the word "concept" becomes questionable, as concept has this idealism association. There's just the form of what is, and this form exist systematically. Russian dolls. (Great chain of being.) Maybe the trans idealist would say we twist the thing-in-itself into that shape. But his dialectical successor, the absolute(undiluted) "idealist" would say that the "thing-in-itself" is part of this supposed twist, which is therefore not a twist. It's feeling like a moebius striptease. Total idealism reverts/inverts into total realism. union of opposites.

Anyway, great subject.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 06:15 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;154137 wrote:
I feel myself moving toward that position. Of course this is not far at all from the real as rational. In fact, the move from transcendental to absolute idealism would seem to imply mathematical realism. It seems to me that Hegel fused Plato and Aristotle. He's a realist as far as ideas go, but asserts that these ideas must be engendered in time. This explains why we seem to invent numbers. And yet a number like pi starts to seem found. It just is the constant in the volume of a sphere, for instance.

If we drop the transcendental distinction, the invention/discovery distinction is questionable. And also the word "concept" becomes questionable, as concept has this idealism association. There's just the form of what is, and this form exist systematically. Russian dolls. (Great chain of being.) Maybe the trans idealist would say we twist the thing-in-itself into that shape. But his dialectical successor, the absolute(undiluted) "idealist" would say that the "thing-in-itself" is part of this supposed twist, which is therefore not a twist. It's feeling like a moebius striptease. Total idealism reverts/inverts into total realism. union of opposites.

Anyway, great subject.



All those questionable things. But who is questioning them? And all those great tags. "Russia dolls" and "great chain of being" both in the very same sentence. How could anyone fail to feel an intellectual thrill?
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 07:11 pm
@TuringEquivalent,
I notice that Badiou presents math as ontology, as D made me aware of. So I looked in on it, browsed the surface. Perhaps Pyth was offering a similar mathematical (or proto-logical) ontology. I like to look at the volume formulas for solids, which are really quite intuitive. It's as if we can cut empty (head-)space into perfect ratios (except when we zoom on pi.) Prime numbers are also a potent argument for realism. They just don't have factors, excepting the obvious inverse of self and one. And then the number one is always a factor of any integer. The foundation of ratio. What if the mind did not possess the notion of unity? It's inconceivable.
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 08:23 pm
@TuringEquivalent,
Well, Reconstructo, I am sure there is a formula somewhere for the percentage of that post which I understand, but it is perishingly close to zero.

I just wanted to quickly rehearse an idea that the reason Platonism appeals to the logic of mathematical law as a demonstration of a non-material reality, is not because maths is all that philosophically significant in its own right, but because of the principle that an idea can be real while not being material. Plato as we know said that the level of noesis was higher than the level of pistis which is the level of perception of mathematics and scientific observation. But it is similar, because in order to grasp a mathematical truth, we must be mathematically capable, that is, capable of perceiving numbers. In order to grasp the Ideas, we must be noetically capable, which by definition the non-philosophers are not. So in this respect the platonist argument on number is really an analogical argument. It is saying, just as the mathematician understands numbers by reason, so to the philosopher understands the Forms via noesis. In so doing, the Philosopher is understanding something which is real in the same way numbers are real, but of much greater ontological status.

Now I am not saying whether I think this is true or not, but I think it is a valid interpretation of Platonism.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 12:26 PM ----------

Incidentally, I just noticed your signature line. There is a frequently-repeated maxim in Eckhardt: 'Creatures are mere nothings'. By 'creatures', of course, he doesn't mean cats and dogs, but all created things.
 
ughaibu
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:25 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;153982 wrote:
Anyone else?
I take it that this is what you're referring to:
jeeprs;153912 wrote:
I am sure we don't invent number. Numbers must be independent of particular minds because they are common to all who think. In coming to grasp them, consciousness cannot convert them into its possessions or alter them. Also the mind discovers rather than forming or constructing them, and its grasp of them can be more or less adequate. For this reason, numbers cannot be part of consciousness' own nature or produced by consciousness out of itself. They must exist independently of individual human minds.

Yet numbers are not material objects. They are eternal and immutable. They cannot be perceived by means of the senses, but only by reason. In these respects, they are quite different to material objects of any kind.

So in this sense, they are real, but they don't exist.
It's difficult to discern an argument, rather than a statement of belief. In any case:
jeeprs;153912 wrote:
I am sure we don't invent number. Numbers must be independent of particular minds because they are common to all who think.
Both sentences appear to be untrue; hyper-real numbers are a recent invention and the Greek geometers managed perfectly well without numbers.
jeeprs;153912 wrote:
In coming to grasp them, consciousness cannot convert them into its possessions or alter them. Also the mind discovers rather than forming or constructing them, and its grasp of them can be more or less adequate. For this reason, numbers cannot be part of consciousness' own nature or produced by consciousness out of itself. They must exist independently of individual human minds.
Your second sentence seems to be false, we learn numbers, we dont discover them, and the first sentence is applicable to all learned social devices.
jeeprs;153912 wrote:
For this reason, numbers cannot be part of consciousness' own nature or produced by consciousness out of itself. They must exist independently of individual human minds.
I dont see how you've presented any more reason to believe this than to believe that "supercalifragilisticexpialidocious" exists independently of human minds.
jeeprs;153912 wrote:
Yet numbers are not material objects. They are eternal and immutable. They cannot be perceived by means of the senses, but only by reason. In these respects, they are quite different to material objects of any kind.

So in this sense, they are real, but they don't exist.
Again, how are numbers any different from supercalifragilisticexpialidocious?
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:30 pm
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;154315 wrote:
.Again, how are numbers any different from supercalifragilisticexpialidocious?


Or any other word, for that matter.

And the answer is: because they have an invariant reference.

The value of number or numerical relationship correlates with observable phenomena which is not culturally determined or defined.
 
ughaibu
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:39 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;154316 wrote:
The value of number or numerical relationship correlates with observable phenomena which is not culturally determined or defined.
Not at all, as I have just pointed out, the Greek geometers entirely avoided numbers. And the inhabitants of the UK need only cross the channel to find that numerical relationships are culturally determined.
 
Reconstructo
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:48 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;154247 wrote:
Well, Reconstructo, I am sure there is a formula somewhere for the percentage of that post which I understand, but it is perishingly close to zero.

I just wanted to quickly rehearse an idea that the reason Platonism appeals to the logic of mathematical law as a demonstration of a non-material reality, is not because maths is all that philosophically significant in its own right, but because of the principle that an idea can be real while not being material. Plato as we know said that the level of noesis was higher than the level of pistis which is the level of perception of mathematics and scientific observation. But it is similar, because in order to grasp a mathematical truth, we must be mathematically capable, that is, capable of perceiving numbers. In order to grasp the Ideas, we must be noetically capable, which by definition the non-philosophers are not. So in this respect the platonist argument on number is really an analogical argument. It is saying, just as the mathematician understands numbers by reason, so to the philosopher understands the Forms via noesis. In so doing, the Philosopher is understanding something which is real in the same way numbers are real, but of much greater ontological status.

Now I am not saying whether I think this is true or not, but I think it is a valid interpretation of Platonism.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 12:26 PM ----------

Incidentally, I just noticed your signature line. There is a frequently-repeated maxim in Eckhardt: 'Creatures are mere nothings'. By 'creatures', of course, he doesn't mean cats and dogs, but all created things.

Great post, J! And thanks for your honesty. And you have given me some data I didn't have. And I will quickly agree that the surface of math is not philosophically important. I think that language and math stem from the same root, which I am currently calling the protologic (or the absolute logic, as a twist from transcendental to something more monistic..or nonistic.) A perfect example would be the One of Parmenides. And for me, this is crucial, as I think the heart of the "proto-logic" is unity. "Being is one." Is that ontology or mathematics or poetry?

You mention "creatures" in relation to the "finite things" in my signature. Well, for me these "finite" things are finite exactly because they are unified, because they are "ones." It seems to me that humans can only think in terms of the discrete...but also that any discrete thing they contemplate cannot be fundamental. I love math because it tackles as well as it can those famous paradoxes of Zeno. And didn't Plato have a sign forbidding those ignorant of geometry to keep out? (Those simple shapes are absolute form). We also see Heraclitus present an inversion of Parmenides. He presented the world as strife, right? Enter our friend the 2. Well the 2 is the dialectic without which time and progress are impossible. And in any single dimension we find exactly 2 directional possibilities.

Anyway, excellent post and an excellent subject. Smile
 
jeeprs
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:57 pm
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;154321 wrote:
Not at all, as I have just pointed out, the Greek geometers entirely avoided numbers. And the inhabitants of the UK need only cross the channel to find that numerical relationships are culturally determined.


Yes. Although I presume that to said geometers, triangles were three-sided, even if they did not have a symbol for this number. And if I went from London to Calais on the channel ferry, and asked for three croissant, and got two, I would have been cheated, culture be damned. Three is trois, drei, whatever. The symbol is culturally determined, the number is obviously not.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 03:58 PM ----------

Reconstructo;154324 wrote:
And didn't Plato have a sign forbidding those ignorant of geometry to keep out? (Those simple shapes are absolute form).


He did. Probably would have kept me out also. Maybe that is what happened. So here I am 2,500 years later still trying to figure it out:bigsmile:.
 
 

 
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