numbers vs. words

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fast
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 01:43 pm
@Extrain,
[QUOTE=Extrain;154077]Nice example! I agree. And I think this is where Ahab disagrees.[/QUOTE]Thanks. But ... :

I am not arguing that "Santa" is not a referring term. I think "Santa" is a referring term. I just don't think it's therefore a referring term; hence, my individual use of that term doesn't therefore make the term a referring term. It's a referring term (if it is) for another reason.

You think that a term is a referring term if it's a term that refers, and though all terms that refer are referring terms, that's not to say that only terms that refer are referring terms.

Again, it all goes back to what it means to say of a term that it's a referring term.
 
kennethamy
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 01:46 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;154080 wrote:
But now I agree, because now you are talking about a person using a term as if it referred;you are not talking about the term.

Read what Fast just said about this. Using a term as if it referred does not entail that it is referring term.



But this is a non-sequiter. It doesn't follow from what you just agreed to.



huh?

But persons search for things, terms don't search for things. It is true that someone can search for the Fountain of Youth, just as it is true that a person can believe that Santa Claus has black boots. But it is not true that Santa Claus has Black Boots, nor is it true that the Fountain of Youth gives you long life--because these terms don't refer.

Moreover, people don't refer like terms refer (as Fast pointed out). "The Fountain of Youth" doesn't refer to the fountain of youth. But I can certainly mistakenly use the description to think it refers to a really existent fountain of youth. But I surely can't use the term to refer to the Fountain of Youth.


---------- Post added 04-19-2010 at 01:26 PM ----------



Very true. If "refer to" is intensionally analogous to "searching for" then, apparently, Ken's view is inconsistent.


I have to think about this, and get my ducks into a row. I did not say that "The Fountain of Youth" refers to the fountain of youth. I said it purports to refer to the fountain of youth. How about, "seems to refer"? Something like that seems right. No one knows whether or not there are ETs. Does "ET" refer or not? The answer seems to me that we don't know, but it certainly purports to refer to ETs. What would you say?
 
Extrain
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 01:53 pm
@fast,
fast;154087 wrote:
Thanks. But ... :
Again, it all goes back to what it means to say of a term that it's a referring term.


You guys are asserting contradictions.

t=term
R=predicate referring.

if a term is referring, then it logically follows that

R(T)

is true.

If a term is not referring, then it logically follows that,

~R(T)

is true.

You guys are confusing the fixed syntactical placement of the adjective "referring" before the noun "term" in the noun phrase "referring term" to conclude that the verb "to refer" is no longer transitive. This is just absurd. "To refer" is transitive!

Again, at Time T1:

If a term is a referring term, then it logically follows that the term refers.
If a person is a kicking person, then it logically follow that the person is kicking.
 
fast
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 01:59 pm
@kennethamy,
[QUOTE=kennethamy;154090]I have to think about this, and get my ducks into a row. I did not say that "The Fountain of Youth" refers to the fountain of youth. I said it purports to refer to the fountain of youth. How about, "seems to refer"? Something like that seems right. No one knows whether or not there are ETs. Does "ET" refer or not? The answer seems to me that we don't know, but it certainly purports to refer to ETs. What would you say?[/QUOTE]The term "The Fountain of Youth" brings something to the table that the term "although" cannot bring, and that is the possibility of reference. The term "although" cannot refer, but the term, "The Fountain of Youth" both can and can not refer. It all depends on the possibility of instantiation.

Here's an example that better exemplifies my point. Consider the term, "the first man on Mars." Extrain would have us believe that the term is a non-referring term, but we both believe that it is a referring term, not because it succeeds to refer but because the possibility that it might refer remains.

What is he to do when a man lands on Mars? Declare that it was, but is no longer, a non-referring term? The possibility of reference is more important than the actuality of reference when it comes to deciding whether or not a term is a referring term or a non-referring term.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 02:07 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;154090 wrote:
I have to think about this, and get my ducks into a row. I did not say that "The Fountain of Youth" refers to the fountain of youth. I said it purports to refer to the fountain of youth. How about, "seems to refer"? Something like that seems right. No one knows whether or not there are ETs. Does "ET" refer or not? The answer seems to me that we don't know, but it certainly purports to refer to ETs. What would you say?


Quite honestly, everyone is getting metaphysics, linguistic meanings, definite descriptions, noun phrases, name-tokens, name-types, classes, and sets all mixed up.

"Extra Terrestrials" is either a set, or not a set, of really existent ET beings. "Extra Terrestrials" considered as a class denote a kind of being, if those kinds of beings exist. So "extra terrestrials" considered as a class, does not necessarily have an extension, only an intension.

"ET" considered as denoting a class, is not a referring term at all. Just as "Unicorns" is not a referring term.

This is why it is so damn important not to confuse names with definite descriptions and classes. Their English words have completely different functions than names. Names refer. Class don't--classes are purely intensional. And predicates can either be intensional or extensional. But either way, verbs are either transitive or intransitive, and "to refer" is a transitive verb. Consequently, if "referring" in "referring term" is an adjective, it does not follow that when a term refers it simultaneously fails to refer. This is just absurd.

Reference is a relation between two things, between a name and a thing. If either of the relata are not there, the name ceases to be a name, and only becomes a purported name. "Santa Claus" is a purported name, but it is not an actual name. A la Kripke, names are necessarily tied to their really existent referents in all possible worlds and all times and places.

But there is no such property desiganted by "purportedly running." If one is only purportedly running, then he is not actually running. If a term is only purportedly referring then it is not actually referring. So it is not a referring term.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 02:40 pm
@fast,
fast;154087 wrote:
Thanks. But ... :

I am not arguing that "Santa" is not a referring term. I think "Santa" is a referring term. I just don't think it's therefore a referring term; hence, my individual use of that term doesn't therefore make the term a referring term. It's a referring term (if it is) for another reason.

You think that a term is a referring term if it's a term that refers, and though all terms that refer are referring terms, that's not to say that only terms that refer are referring terms.

Again, it all goes back to what it means to say of a term that it's a referring term.


I see little reason to call a word a referring term unless I can use it to refer.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 02:46 pm
@fast,
fast;154095 wrote:
The term "The Fountain of Youth" brings something to the table that the term "although" cannot bring, and that is the possibility of reference. The term "although" cannot refer, but the term, "The Fountain of Youth" both can and can not refer. It all depends on the possibility of instantiation.

Here's an example that better exemplifies my point. Consider the term, "the first man on Mars."

What is he to do when a man lands on Mars? Declare that it was, but is no longer, a non-referring term? The possibility of reference is more important than the actuality of reference when it comes to deciding whether or not a term is a referring term or a non-referring term.


Only names can refer. Again, I don't know why you guys continue to inist on equivocating names, classes, sets, definite descriptions, reference, denotation, indication, and instantiation. They are NOT the same thing.

"The Fountain of Youth" or "the first man on mars" are not names--they are definite descriptions. And definite descriptions do not have reference in and of themselves. And definite descriptions do not denote properties, either. They are functions which take things as inputs and map them to an output. In this case here, it would be either one and only one man, and one and only one thing--if they exist. But they don't refer to anything. So they are not referring sets of words.

Instantiation is a relation between a property and a thing--things instantiate properties. Things don't instantiate definte descriptions, because not definite descripitions are not properties.

fast;154095 wrote:
Extrain would have us believe that the term is a non-referring term, but we both believe that it is a referring term, not because it succeeds to refer but because the possibility that it might refer remains.


But that's a lame reason to consider it to be a referring term. Should I then contend that all words are referring terms because there is a possibility that "although" might refer to something really existent after all?

Suppose we find out there really is a jolly fat man with a red suit who lives at the north pole and delivers presents to some children on Christmas. It's certianly possible. It's still not true that "Santa Claus" refers to this man. Simply because no one gave that man the name. After all, his name could be Cliff Robertson, for all we know, and not "Saint Nick."

Scientists used to think there was this stuff called "phlogiston." But they found out there is good reason to think phlogiston doesn't exist--and it doesn't. So in this case, it's not that "phlogiston" used to refer, but now doesn't. It's that people only mistakenly thought "phlogiston" used to refer, but it really doesn't. So "phlogiston" was never a referring term simply because it never had an extension to begin with.

---------- Post added 04-19-2010 at 02:49 PM ----------

Ahab;154099 wrote:
I see little reason to call a word a referring term unless I can use it to refer.


Which is true, but that's not the only reason why it IS a referring term. You just assume relations, such as the reference relation, can hold between existent and non-existent things--which is absurd.

if A="Santa claus"
If B=Santa claus.

and R=reference relation.

Then,

R(a,b)

is false because B doesn't exist. Therefore, "Santa Claus" does not refer to Santa Claus.

So if you want to continue on appealing to phenomenological language use as a guide to your metaphysical conclusions, by all means. But your conclusions are very unpalatable, not to mention irrational.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 03:31 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;154101 wrote:

Which is true, but that's not the only reason why it IS a referring term. You just assume relations, such as the reference relation, can hold between existent and non-existent things--which is absurd.

if A="Santa claus"
If B=Santa claus.

and R=reference relation.

Then,

R(a,b)

is false because B doesn't exist. Therefore, "Santa Claus" does not refer to Santa Claus.

So if you want to continue on appealing to phenomenological language use as a guide to your metaphysical conclusions, by all means. But your conclusions are very unpalatable, not to mention irrational.


To use words according to standard usage is not absurd, nor is it irrational.

You still have not given an adequate explanation as to why you keep presupposing existence for reference. As far as I can tell, that presupposition flies in the face of standard usage.

---------- Post added 04-19-2010 at 02:43 PM ----------

Extrain;154101 wrote:

Suppose we find out there really is a jolly fat man with a red suit who lives at the north pole and delivers presents to some children on Christmas. It's certianly possible. It's still not true that "Santa Claus" refers to this man. Simply because no one gave that man the name. After all, his name could be Cliff Robertson, for all we know, and not "Saint Nick."


I agree.

Quote:

Scientists used to think there was this stuff called "phlogiston." But they found out there is good reason to think phlogiston doesn't exist--and it doesn't. So in this case, it's not that "phlogiston" used to refer, but now doesn't. It's that people only mistakenly thought "phlogiston" used to refer, but it really doesn't. So "phlogiston" was never a referring term.


I agree with this. But when scientists used 'phlogiston' to refer they thought that they were referring to a real substance. But phlogiston is not a real substance. I would consider that to be a case of reference failure.

When people refer to Santa Claus or Clark Kent or Doc Savage, they don't think they are referring to real beings. They know those are imaginary beings. Those names were never intended to be used to refer to real persons. I see no reason for classifying these latter cases as reference failures.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 05:36 pm
@Ahab,
Ahab;154118 wrote:
To use words according to standard usage is not absurd, nor is it irrational.


I never said it was! I just said conventional usage is not always the best guide for constructing metaphysical theories--which is what you are doing.

Ahab;154118 wrote:
You still have not given an adequate explanation as to why you keep presupposing existence for reference. As far as I can tell, that presupposition flies in the face of standard usage.


No, it doesn't fly in the face of usage. How so?

And I've already told you! Reference is a relation as defined by the dictionary. And logically, if neither of the terms of the relata relate, then necessarily, the relation does not hold between the two objects--which logically falls out of the definition.

Santa Claus doesn't exist. There is no entity referred to by the purported name "Santa Claus." Therefore, "Santa Claus" does not refer to Santa Claus. Period. This is a much more plausible view to hold than think "Santa Claus" refers to a non-existent Santa Claus.

Ahab;154118 wrote:
I agree with this. But when scientists used 'phlogiston' to refer they thought that they were referring to a real substance. But phlogiston is not a real substance. I would consider that to be a case of reference failure.


Precisely! Because the word did not refer. So the word was never a referring term even though scientists thought that it was. There is nothing wrong with being mistaken about the correct functioning of our own words, even if we take them to be functioning one way when they are really not functioning that way...You just seem to think we are unable reflect on what are words are actually doing apart from our usage of it. There is nothing wrong with being mistaken about the functions of our own words....sheesh.

Ahab;154118 wrote:
When people refer to Santa Claus or Clark Kent or Doc Savage, they don't think they are referring to real beings. They know those are imaginary beings. Those names were never intended to be used to refer to real persons.


huh? If those names were never intended to be used to refer to real persons, then it follows they are not referring terms and the community never perceived that they were!

Quote:
I see no reason for classifying these latter cases as reference failures.


Well, then you are going against common usage. "To refer" is a transitive verb, so it needs a direct object; that's what transitive verbs ARE--it is defined that way by linguistic communities. But if some people think "Santa Claus" refers to Santa Claus, then they are clearly mistaken because it is entailed by what they truly believe and don't believe. Likewise, if someone thinks "Santa Claus" is a referring term that doesn't refer--he is just not thinking it through. What is so problematic about that? Which community has told you that "Santa Claus" is a referring term? I don't know of any.
 
fast
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 08:37 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;154101 wrote:
But that's a lame reason to consider it to be a referring term. Should I then contend that all words are referring terms because there is a possibility that "although" might refer to something really existent after all?
No, I suppose not. Still, the term "although" cannot refer, yet the term "Fountain of Youth" can. Whether a term can or cannot refer seems to me to be important.

It's my understanding that the term "referring term" is a technical term. Given that, what would be a good source that conveys the definition?
 
Extrain
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 10:21 pm
@fast,
fast;154252 wrote:
No, I suppose not. Still, the term "although" cannot refer, yet the term "Fountain of Youth" can. Whether a term can or cannot refer seems to me to be important.


Wait a minute. How come "although" can't refer, but "The Fountain of Youth" can? That's a little arbitrary. I can certainly name my kid "although," can't I?

In any case, what is the cash value of saying "The Fountain of Youth" can refer? The fact is, it doesn't; it never has and it never will (and I will show you why below). And "the FOY" can no more refer than the word "although" can refer. Linguistic communities decide which words refer (names of objects), and which don't, and they do this by performing a kind of "baptism" of the name when they first give it to the individual, or to the object, or to the city--just as "hippie" parents will sometimes name their child "snow." More importantly, "the Fountain of Youth" is a definite description (not a name) which any object can satisfy, so long as that object has the properties thought to be possessed by the kinds of things fountains of youth would be if they existed, such as imparting a young and hearty life to the person who drinks from them. So it's surely possible that there can be more than one fountain of youth, yes? So one and only one object satisfy a description at one time, just as one and only one object can be referred to by a name, but the difference is that it's possible that multiple objects satisfies that description when you say "The King of France is Bald," whereas multiple objects are not referred to when you utter "Richard Nixon was the president of the United States."

Take this example: "The King of France is bald." Of course, one and only one object can satisfy the description "The King of France" at a time, since the definite article "the" tells us this. But notice, multiple persons can be the King of France at different times--whether Louis XIV or Louis XIII. Names are different. Of course, names can refer to one and only one object at a time, just as "Richard Nixon" refers only to Richard Nixon when I say "Richard Nixon was once President of the United States." But unlike definite descriptions, "Richard Nixon" still refers to the same man across all times.

So suppose we actually found two Fountains of Youth in the Amazon. To which one does "The Fountain of Youth" refer, then? "The Fountain of Youth" can pick out one and only one particular object at a time since the definite article "the" logically means just that--the fountain of youth. So "The Fountain of Youth" cannot refer to both since "the" dictates otherwise. But since there can only be one Fountain of Youth and not two, then I beg you to tell me--to which one does it refer?? No one has actually named either of these objects yet--and that is precisely the problem. So "The Fountain of Youth" can no more refer to one of these objects than "although" can refer to them. After all, I can certainly name my kid "although" if I wanted to. And then "although" would be a name that referred after all. But no one has ever dubbed an actually existing fountain of youth with any name whatsoever. So even if we found a fountain of youth at the South Pole, say, then "The Fountain of Youth" would not refer to this thing at all since no one has even dubbed this particular object by "The Fountain of Youth" yet anyway.

Further, notice my Santa Claus example: would the name of that old man we found at the north pole really be "Santa Claus"? What if his name was "Cliff Robertson"? So the question immediately arises, "who, really, is Santa Claus"?

Quote:
It's my understanding that the term "referring term" is a technical term. Given that, what would be a good source that conveys the definition?


That's correct. "Reference"--at least in the philosophy of language--is a very technical term. So I just picked it up from all my readings in the philosophy of language on theories of meaning and reference.

I would recommend this great source for starters (if you haven't looked at it already):

Reference (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

Good bibliography too.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:02 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;154168 wrote:
I never said it was! I just said conventional usage is not always the best guide for constructing metaphysical theories--which is what you are doing.

Huh? I'm not constructing any metaphysical theory. In my first post on this particular topic I wrote:
"I don't happen to share your concept of reference. Reference does not presuppose reality or existence. It presupposes identifiability."

And since then I've been trying to point out why I find your conception of reference to be lacking because people do use names to refer to fictional characters. This usage is well-attested in the case of fictional characters. And we both agree that those fictional characters are not real.



Quote:
You just seem to think we are unable reflect on what are words are actually doing apart from our usage of it. There is nothing wrong with being mistaken about the functions of our own words....sheesh.


Words don't magically do things apart from our usage of them. Words are like tools that we can use. And the rules for their use are set by convention.
Of course, I think you are mistaken about the use people make of the names of fictional characters. Maybe I spent too many years with a bunch of literary nerds in college, but I just can't take seriously your view that people don't intend to use those names to refer to the fictional characters themselves.

Quote:
huh? If those names were never intended to be used to refer to real persons, then it follows they are not referring terms and the community never perceived that they were!


Really? Why would people give those fictional characters names if they didn't intend on using those names to refer to those imaginary beings?

Quote:
Well, then you are going against common usage. "To refer" is a transitive verb, so it needs a direct object; that's what transitive verbs ARE--it is defined that way by linguistic communities.

If a transitive verb cannot take as its grammatical object something that is thought to be imaginary it would be impossible for people to write fictional stories or tell tales of fantasy.


Quote:
And I've already told you! Reference is a relation as defined by the dictionary. And logically, if neither of the terms of the relata relate, then necessarily, the relation does not hold between the two objects--which logically falls out of the definition.


Yes there is a relation, but the lexical definition doesn't say or even imply that it is a relation like that of touching an object. There simply is no grammatical rule that states the referent has to be an existing object.

Were you taught in grammar school that the names of fictional characters are not really names because we can't use them to refer to imaginary beings? Or can you show me a lexical definition that would support such a claim?


You really need to start taking seriously the implications of reference to fictional characters as regards your conception of reference.
 
Extrain
 
Reply Mon 19 Apr, 2010 11:35 pm
@Ahab,
Ahab;154309 wrote:
Huh? I'm not constructing any metaphysical theory. In my first post on this particular topic I wrote:
"I don't happen to share your concept of reference. Reference does not presuppose reality or existence. It presupposes identifiability."

And since then I've been trying to point out why I find your conception of reference to be lacking because people do use names to refer to fictional characters. This usage is well-attested in the case of fictional characters. And we both agree that those fictional characters are not real.


But people can't refer to non-existent things. It's impossible.

Ahab;154309 wrote:
Words don't magically do things apart from our usage of them. Words are like tools that we can use. And the rules for their use are set by convention.


Of course!!!! But grammatical/syntactical rules of use do not have anything to say about whether or not terms are successfully referring or not. This is where philosophy comes in. You confuse linguistics with the philosophy of language. They are not the same disciplines.

Ahab;154309 wrote:
If a transitive verb cannot take as its grammatical object something that is thought to be imaginary it would be impossible for people to write fictional stories or tell tales of fantasy.


We are not talking about grammatical direct objects. We are talking about whether those grammatical direct objects have existing referents--really existing objects, whether physical or non-physical. And if they don't, whether those grammatical direct objects are really referring terms. So you conclude that Santa Claus must really exist because it is a distasteful result for you that it would be impossible for people to really write stories about Santa Claus? That's crazy!

Ahab;154309 wrote:
Yes there is a relation, but the lexical definition doesn't say or even imply that it is a relation like that of touching an object. There simply is no grammatical rule that states the referent has to be an existing object.


Dictionaries are not philosophical/logical discourses. But if something does, in fact, refer to something else, logically speaking, that something else must exist. We are not engaging in lexicography or mere linguistics. We are not discussing mere grammar alone. We are discussing philosophy of language.

Ahab;154309 wrote:
Of course, I think you are mistaken about the use people make of the names of fictional characters. Maybe I spent too many years with a bunch of literary nerds in college, but I just can't take seriously your view that people don't intend to use those names to refer to the fictional characters themselves.

Really? Why would people give those fictional characters names if they didn't intend on using those names to refer to those imaginary beings?


Were you taught in grammar school that the names of fictional characters are not really names because we can't use them to refer to imaginary beings? Or can you show me a lexical definition that would support such a claim?

You really need to start taking seriously the implications of reference to fictional characters as regards your conception of reference.


You don't even pay attention to what I say....The problem of reference doesn't begin in fictional contexts, it begins outside those contexts--in ordinary everyday contexts. honestly, I'm exhausted having to contend with this. We've all gone over this several times...

If you think fictional characters are real, or that names refer to imaginary beings, then that's your ontology, and hence, that's your metaphysical theory.

You arrive at this theory through your being misled by fictional language contexts without reflecting on the consequences of your results. That's a sloppy way of doing philosophy, and it makes the philosophical consequences of your over-reliance on conventional language use absurd.

I seriously do not respect this alleged so-called "Wittgensteinian commonsense" approach to philosophy because it's lazy. Here's why: If you ask any normal English speaker if he really believed in Santa Claus, he would tell you "no." If you asked him why, he would tell you because Santa Claus does not exist. The philosophical problem concerning reference begins here. It doesn't begin with the speaker saying "Santa Claus wears black boots" to his child in fictional contexts. It begins when you ask him outside of fictional language contexts whether he thinks a person named "Santa Claus" lives at the North Pole, and he would say "no, no such person as Santa Claus lives at the North Pole." Adults merely pretend to assert things about imaginary beings, they don't actually assert things they think are literally true.

Fictional characters do not exist because they are described as having arms, legs, and living on Baker Street, and imaginary beings cannot possess real arms and legs. And these fictional characters certainly don't exist as abstract non-physical objects since non-physical objects can't have arms and legs either. So fictional characters are neither imaginary beings, nor are they really existing abstract objects like concepts and numbers are really existing abstract objects. But the problem is that all stories and descriptions describe fictional characters that way, namely, with physical attributes and physical characteristics. Do you think we never intend to say anything truthful by using our language? If we do, and if our language is going to be truthful in fact, then parts of our language have to be connected to a really existent outside world. So the problem is this:

"Sherlock Holmes is a detective" is literally false, either because:

(1) "Sherlock Holmes" doesn't refer to Sherlock Holmes, or
(2) "Sherlock Holmes" does refer to Sherlock Holmes, and Sherlock Holmes is really an existent abstract object, but Sherlock Holmes doesn't have any of those physical properties we ascribe to him.

So either way, "Sherlock Holmes is a detective" is false.

That's what is problematic if we want to maintain the truth-preserving aspect of our language use.

How many times do we have to go over this...

It would help if you familiarized yourself with some of the philosophical landscape with respect to the philosophy of language. If you ever get the chance, please take a look at these entries on meaning, reference, fictionalism, and abstract objects:

Reference (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy) reference
Theories of Meaning (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy) meaning
Fictionalism (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy) fictionalism
Fictionalism in the Philosophy of Mathematics (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy) fictionalism in math
Platonism in Metaphysics (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy) abstract objects
 
Extrain
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 04:41 am
@Extrain,
kennethamy;154090 wrote:
I have to think about this, and get my ducks into a row. I did not say that "The Fountain of Youth" refers to the fountain of youth. I said it purports to refer to the fountain of youth. How about, "seems to refer"? Something like that seems right. No one knows whether or not there are ETs. Does "ET" refer or not? The answer seems to me that we don't know, but it certainly purports to refer to ETs. What would you say?


You're funny. Try what Russell would say in his "Knowledge by Acquaintance and Knowledge by Description":

If it only "seems to" refer, then it doesn't actually refer because it is not a name we are acquainted with at all. Period. We know this or that word (i.e., name) refers if and only if we have some kind of direct access to that thing when we gave it that name ourselves, or when we use that name the way other people do, because that same usage stretches all the way back to the first individual who first dubbed that thing with the name in question--This is exactly why "The Fountain of Youth" is not a referring term. No one succeeded in assigning an actual referent to it in the beginning because no one had direct contact (acquaintance) with the Fountain of Youth at all.

I am pretty confident Russell said something like this. We know names refer to objects, people, and cities by our acquaintance with those things, either directly or indirectly through a chain of events.

But we don't know if anything satisfies the definite description "The Fountain of Youth" because know one has ever encountered such a thing.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 07:10 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;154319 wrote:
But people can't refer to non-existent things. It's impossible.

You think so because you have misconceived what reference is. There is no grammatical rule of conventional usage that forbids language users from using a name to refer to imaginary beings.


Quote:

Of course!!!! But grammatical/syntactical rules of use do not have anything to say about whether or not terms are successfully referring or not. This is where philosophy comes in. You confuse linguistics with the philosophy of language. They are not the same disciplines.


The rules tell us what it makes sense to say. Questions of sense and meaning are determined before questions of truth.



Quote:

We are not talking about grammatical direct objects. We are talking about whether those grammatical direct objects have existing referents--really existing objects, whether physical or non-physical. And if they don't, whether those grammatical direct objects are really referring terms. So you conclude that Santa Claus must really exist because it is a distasteful result for you that it would be impossible for people to really write stories about Santa Claus? That's crazy!


Where have I said that Santa Claus exists or that he is real? It would be illogical to think he exists simply because I can refer to him. If I thought 'Santa Claus' was the name of a real person, then there would be reference failure because Santa Claus is not a real person.
My wife is a devout Catholic. I am a lapsed Catholic. I don't believe the Christian God exists. Do you really think it is impossible for me to refer to that God? That is an absurd idea!

Quote:

Dictionaries are not philosophical/logical discourses. But if something does, in fact, refer to something else, logically speaking, that something else must exist. We are not engaging in lexicography or mere linguistics. We are not discussing mere grammar alone. We are discussing philosophy of language.


If you don't use language according to the rules you end up talking nonsense. You can't ignore those rules simply because you claim to be discussing the philosophy of language.

Quote:

You don't even pay attention to what I say....The problem of reference doesn't begin in fictional contexts, it begins outside those contexts--in ordinary everyday contexts. honestly, I'm exhausted having to contend with this. We've all gone over this several times...


The problem of reference begins within grammar. What does it mean to refer to a real object? What does it mean to refer to an abstract object? What does it mean to refer to an imaginary being?
You've focused in on one particular aspect of language use: how we can make truthful assertions about the world we live in. That is alright as long as you bear in mind that this aspect is just one of the many language games people can play. I think you've lost that perspective.

Quote:

If you think fictional characters are real, or that names refer to imaginary beings, then that's your ontology, and hence, that's your metaphysical theory.

Please show me where I have claimed that fictional characters are real.

Quote:

I seriously do not respect this alleged so-called "Wittgensteinian commonsense" approach to philosophy because it's lazy.


I disagree.


Quote:

Do you think we never intend to say anything truthful by using our language? If we do, and if our language is going to be truthful in fact, then parts of our language have to be connected to a really existent outside world.

You are mistaken. There is no way for language to literally be connected to the world around us. That is why metaphysics as it has been traditionally practiced is a dead end. There is no way to get outside of language and describe mind-independent, language-independent, metaphysical necessities in reality. What philosophers thought were descriptions of de re necessities are actually norms of representation.

Quote:

So the problem is this:

"Sherlock Holmes is a detective" is literally false, either because:

(1) "Sherlock Holmes" doesn't refer to Sherlock Holmes, or
(2) "Sherlock Holmes" does refer to Sherlock Holmes, and Sherlock Holmes is really an existent abstract object, but Sherlock Holmes doesn't have any of those physical properties we ascribe to him.

So either way, "Sherlock Holmes is a detective" is false.

That's what is problematic if we want to maintain the truth-preserving aspect of our language use.


All you've done is distort language use by looking at it from only one perspective. Competent users of the language know that they can talk about Sherlock Holmes, that they can describe him, that they can refer to him and that they can say it is true that he was a detective.

Quote:

How many times do we have to go over this...


I don't think we are going to go over this anymore. I'm rather tired of hearing you claim that it is impossible to use words to refer to non-existent things when it is quite clear to me that people do that precise thing all the time. It is true that we cannot refer to an existing object in the world if it doesn't really exist. That doesn't entail that language cannot be used to refer to non-existent or imaginary objects. If we can describe non-existent things like fictional characters then we can refer to them.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 07:23 AM ----------

Extrain;154399 wrote:
You're funny. Try what Russell would say in his "Knowledge by Acquaintance and Knowledge by Description":

If it only "seems to" refer, then it doesn't actually refer because it is not a name we are acquainted with at all. Period. We know this or that word (i.e., name) refers if and only if we have some kind of direct access to that thing when we gave it that name ourselves, or when we use that name the way other people do, because that same usage stretches all the way back to the first individual who first dubbed that thing with the name in question--This is exactly why "The Fountain of Youth" is not a referring term. No one succeeded in assigning an actual referent to it in the beginning because no one had direct contact (acquaintance) with the Fountain of Youth at all.



This simply makes no sense. If people didn't' know what 'The Fountain of Youth' purportedly referred to then they could not have verified that it doesn't actually exist. Same goes for 'phlogiston' and 'Vulcan'.

People don't always use a name in the same way as it was first used. "Zeus" was originally used to refer to a real being. Now it is used to refer to a mythological being.

This 'causal theory' of 'baptizing' someone or something with a name is a false theory.
 
fast
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 09:30 am
@Extrain,
[QUOTE=Extrain;154399]You're funny. Try what Russell would say in his "Knowledge by Acquaintance and Knowledge by Description":

If it only "seems to" refer, then it doesn't actually refer because it is not a name we are acquainted with at all. Period. [/QUOTE]Why slip in the word "only"?

If it ONLY seems to refer, then no, it doesn't refer, but that it seems to refer doesn't imply that it does or doesn't. I saw a person today that seemed like a woman, and I suppose the person seemed like a woman because she was a woman; hence, although some things may seem to be something they are not, some things are in fact what they seem to be.

The name of my cat seems to refer to my cat, and in that case, things are just as they seem to be. The term "unicorn" seems to refer, and if there are in fact unicorns, then the term does just what it seems to do. The term "although" doesn't seem to refer like the term "unicorn" seems to.

By the way, since you bring it up, if you name your child "although," then we're not dealing with the same word anymore, and no, I don't mean that it would be the same word but ambiguous. I mean it would be a completely different word.

Also, I'll have you know, I have been to the Fountain of Youth. It's in St. Augustine. If you're ever in the area, check out nearby Saint George Street. It's a happening little place.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 09:36 am
@Extrain,
Extrain;154319 wrote:
If you ask any normal English speaker if he really believed in Santa Claus, he would tell you "no." If you asked him why, he would tell you because Santa Claus does not exist. The philosophical problem concerning reference begins here. It doesn't begin with the speaker saying "Santa Claus wears black boots" to his child in fictional contexts. It begins when you ask him outside of fictional language contexts whether he thinks a person named "Santa Claus" lives at the North Pole, and he would say "no, no such person as Santa Claus lives at the North Pole." Adults merely pretend to assert things about imaginary beings, they don't actually assert things they think are literally true.


I draw a diferent lesson from your example. A competent user of English understands that one can use a name to refer to an imaginary being. That is why they will answer the question regarding Santa's existence with "no". After all, isn't that one of the reasons we give our fictional characters proper names: in order to be able to refer to them?
It is an incompentent user of English who will go on to affirm that Santa Claus must be a real person if one uses "Santa Claus" to refer to Santa.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 08:56 AM ----------

fast;154498 wrote:
Why slip in the word "only"?

If it ONLY seems to refer, then no, it doesn't refer, but that it seems to refer doesn't imply that it does or doesn't. I saw a person today that seemed like a woman, and I suppose the person seemed like a woman because she was a woman; hence, although some things may seem to be something they are not, some things are in fact what they seem to be.

The name of my cat seems to refer to my cat, and in that case, things are just as they seem to be. The term "unicorn" seems to refer, and if there are in fact unicorns, then the term does just what it seems to do. The term "although" doesn't seem to refer like the term "unicorn" seems to.

By the way, since you bring it up, if you name your child "although," then we're not dealing with the same word anymore, and no, I don't mean that it would be the same word but ambiguous. I mean it would be a completely different word.

Also, I'll have you know, I have been to the Fountain of Youth. It's in St. Augustine. If you're ever in the area, check out nearby Saint George Street. It's a happening little place.


Intersting how varied our concepts of reference are.

You and Kennethamy seem to agree with Extrain that words can only be used to refer to an existent thing.

Extrain and I agree that it makes no sense to call a name a referring term if it can never be used to refer to what it names.

No one agrees with me that the name of an imaginary being can be used to refer to what it names.
 
ughaibu
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 01:53 pm
@Ahab,
Ahab;154505 wrote:
No one agrees with me that the name of an imaginary being can be used to refer to what it names.
I agree with you.
 
Ahab
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 01:54 pm
@Extrain,
Extrain;154319 wrote:

So fictional characters are neither imaginary beings, nor are they really existing abstract objects like concepts and numbers are really existing abstract objects.


So what are fictional characters? Simply descriptions?

Fictional characters are imaginary beings.

From dictionary.com

fictional character
noun

an imaginary person represented in a work of fiction (play or film or story); "she is the main character in the novel"
 
Extrain
 
Reply Tue 20 Apr, 2010 10:10 pm
@fast,
fast;154498 wrote:
Why slip in the word "only"?

If it ONLY seems to refer, then no, it doesn't refer, but that it seems to refer doesn't imply that it does or doesn't. I saw a person today that seemed like a woman, and I suppose the person seemed like a woman because she was a woman; hence, although some things may seem to be something they are not, some things are in fact what they seem to be.

The name of my cat seems to refer to my cat, and in that case, things are just as they seem to be. The term "unicorn" seems to refer, and if there are in fact unicorns, then the term does just what it seems to do. The term "although" doesn't seem to refer like the term "unicorn" seems to.

By the way, since you bring it up, if you name your child "although," then we're not dealing with the same word anymore, and no, I don't mean that it would be the same word but ambiguous. I mean it would be a completely different word.

Also, I'll have you know, I have been to the Fountain of Youth. It's in St. Augustine. If you're ever in the area, check out nearby Saint George Street. It's a happening little place.


Ok, I guess "The Fountain of Youth" is a name after all. I had no clue there was a physical object dubbed with that name in St. Augustine (shows you how much I know).

But my point still stands. If there were no object that anyone ever actually named "The Fountain of Youth," then this string of words stands as a definite description. That is why the word "only seems to be referring" is relevant in this case. If it only seems to refer, then it is a good chance it is not a name. In fact, it is more likely not a name than a description. You might want to check out Russell's article I suggested where he discusses the same thing.

And I agree. "Although" would be a different word. That's exactly the point of my post. Names come into existence when someone "baptizes" a person, place, or thing with a symbol in order to refer to something within language. And a name can be any such symbol, so long as someone uses that symbol that way.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 10:18 PM ----------

Ahab;154579 wrote:
So what are fictional characters? Simply descriptions?

Fictional characters are imaginary beings.

From dictionary.com

fictional character
noun

an imaginary person represented in a work of fiction (play or film or story); "she is the main character in the novel"


Nothing. It is true that authors write about imaginary persons in fiction. But it is not true that imaginary persons exist.

"Sherlock Holmes is a detective" is literally false.

"Sherlock Holmes is a detective" is literally true-in-the-story.

The first purports to be about Sherlock Holmes. The latter is about the story.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 10:24 PM ----------

Ahab;154505 wrote:
I draw a diferent lesson from your example. A competent user of English understands that one can use a name to refer to an imaginary being. That is why they will answer the question regarding Santa's existence with "no". After all, isn't that one of the reasons we give our fictional characters proper names: in order to be able to refer to them?
It is an incompentent user of English who will go on to affirm that Santa Claus must be a real person if one uses "Santa Claus" to refer to Santa.


You're still not understanding. My point is that this is where the philosophical problem of reference of empty names begins, yet this is where you stop. There's no "lesson to be learned" here. Instead, this is how the problem arises.

---------- Post added 04-20-2010 at 11:07 PM ----------

Ahab;154425 wrote:
You think so because you have misconceived what reference is. There is no grammatical rule of conventional usage that forbids language users from using a name to refer to imaginary beings.


Again, I am not going contrary to language use. I am in perfect conformity with the use of "reference." So what are you even talking about?

Do you even bother thinking about the logical implications of a lexicographer's definitions??? You are just caught in the grip of your own theory and can't see beyond it. I disagree that fictional talk is a perfectly good guide in asserting the existence of imaginary beings.
It is perfectly rational to believe that imaginary beings don't exist, and if they don't, to believe that reference to these things is impossible. Reference to anything non-existence is impossible. Reference is transitive, according to the dictionary. So I am in perfect conformity with how language is used. duh.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
Questions of sense and meaning are determined before questions of truth.


Why? Where's your argument? Philosophy is about both, so why do you give priority to one over the other? That's your own bias--which is exactly the problem. You can't see the bigger picture. Maybe if you stepped outside your own select "school of thought" you might be able to actually consider the intuitive plausibility of other ideas? What's wrong with that?

Ahab;154425 wrote:
My wife is a devout Catholic. I am a lapsed Catholic. I don't believe the Christian God exists. Do you really think it is impossible for me to refer to that God? That is an absurd idea!


Funny. I asked you that same question posts ago. If God exists, then you are, in fact, referring to that God. If God does not exist, then you are not referring to that God--and neither is your wife--in spite of what either of you think or believe. So it doesn't matter.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
If you don't use language according to the rules you end up talking nonsense. You can't ignore those rules simply because you claim to be discussing the philosophy of language.


I find it funny you accuse me of violating language rules, but you still haven't explained to me why. So I still don't know what the problem is.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
The problem of reference begins within grammar. What does it mean to refer to a real object? What does it mean to refer to an abstract object? What does it mean to refer to an imaginary being?


But it doesn't END there; it begins there. That's what you don't understand.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
You've focused in on one particular aspect of language use: how we can make truthful assertions about the world we live in. That is alright as long as you bear in mind that this aspect is just one of the many language games people can play. I think you've lost that perspective.


I just don't think language is merely a game. We game-play with it, which is fine. But language is also truthful.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
Please show me where I have claimed that fictional characters are real.


If someone can refer to imaginary beings, then those beings would be real (though non-physical).

Ahab;154425 wrote:
You are mistaken. There is no way for language to literally be connected to the world around us. That is why metaphysics as it has been traditionally practiced is a dead end. There is no way to get outside of language and describe mind-independent, language-independent, metaphysical necessities in reality. What philosophers thought were descriptions of de re necessities are actually norms of representation.


I disagree. This is your opinion, not an argument. Your opinion, here, is an appeal to ignorance. Consequently, this is a logical fallacy.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
All you've done is distort language use by looking at it from only one perspective.


Which "perspective"? The one you just happen not to like? How do you know I have not already taken up your own perspective? I have, in fact. And I find it incredibly impoverished.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
Competent users of the language know that they can talk about Sherlock Holmes, that they can describe him, that they can refer to him and that they can say it is true that he was a detective.


I disagree. Competent users know that they can pretend to refer to Sherlock Holmes. Just ask them. Does Sherlock Holmes really exist? The will say "no, the story of Sherlock Holmes is just a story."

Ahab;154425 wrote:
I don't think we are going to go over this anymore. I'm rather tired of hearing you claim that it is impossible to use words to refer to non-existent things when it is quite clear to me that people do that precise thing all the time.


This is your own problem. You let language usage decide your metaphysics for you without thinking of through its logical implications. This is a very rudimentary way of doing philosophy.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
It is true that we cannot refer to an existing object in the world if it doesn't really exist. That doesn't entail that language cannot be used to refer to non-existent or imaginary objects. If we can describe non-existent things like fictional characters then we can refer to them.


We don't actually refer to fictional objects. We pretend to refer to them.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
This simply makes no sense. If people didn't' know what 'The Fountain of Youth' purportedly referred to then they could not have verified that it doesn't actually exist. Same goes for 'phlogiston' and 'Vulcan'.


Excuse me? How do people "verify" non-existent things? Scientists just stopped believing in the existence of Phlogiston because they saw there was no good reason to think it existed. It was instrumentally useless and didn't explain the combustion of certain materials. This is a perfect case of reference failure, since it never referred at all, even people once thought it did.

"The Fountain of Youth" during Ponce de Leon's day simply failed to dub any existent object to which anyone had any direct acquintance. So it is not a name that refers to anything. Ponce de Leon thought the entity existed by his use of these words, but people stopped believing that it existed. So there is no good reason to believe it exists if no one has yet discovered it. This is also a case of reference failure.

However, Kennethamy has brought to my attention (unbeknownst to me) that there is a fountain in St. Augustine (Florida, I presume?) that people have dubbed "The Fountain of Youth."--So it is a name after all that refers to a really existent object. But this wasn't the same set of words Ponce de Leon used when he talked about "The Fountain of Youth."

Ahab;154425 wrote:
People don't always use a name in the same way as it was first used. "Zeus" was originally used to refer to a real being. Now it is used to refer to a mythological being.


huh? So "Zeus" used to refer to a real being?? So "God" as you and your wife use it refers to a real being even though you don't believe in this God??

"Zeus" back then is still the same word as "Zeus" today. "Zeus" never referred, even if people thought it did.

On the other hand, the words "The Fountain of Youth" today are not the same words as "The Fountain of Youth" as used by Ponce de Leon.

Ahab;154425 wrote:
This 'causal theory' of 'baptizing' someone or something with a name is a false theory.


Why? Instead of just giving your opinion, it would be nice if you actually constructed an argument for this claim. Try reading some philosophy other than that which just conforms to your own preconceived beliefs. It's good to expand your mind and challenge your beliefs.
 
 

 
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