@GoshisDead,
GoshisDead;168850 wrote:Lets try this. Is there a statement to be made about a fact that isn't based somehow on a presupposition? For example, in this case we have the fact (X person did the act of bombing) is statement that somehow describes this that is not based on a presupposition. Or is there a statement that places a truth value on this that can do anything besides say that (X person bombed) without referring to arbitrary definition of that truth?
I don't know what you have in mind by "a presupposition" so it is impossible to answer your question. I suppose that the statement that X (a person) bombed some place or other presupposes that there are persons, and that there are bombs, and that there are places. Is that the sort of thing you have in mind? I suppose there are arbitrary definitions of truth, for example, that truth is a fried egg. But if one defines "truth" as a relation between a statement or proposition and the world, I cannot understand why anyone would call that "arbitrary". Of course, that need not mean that such a definition of "truth" is correct. But it certainly would not be
arbitrary in the way that defining truth as a fried egg would be.
---------- Post added 05-26-2010 at 05:26 AM ----------
Arjuna;168858 wrote:So when I asked if you were stating that there are moral absolutes, you could have just said: yes.
Exactly. We can verify through interrogation that the bomber intended to create terror. We can look at that sort of thing the way a sociologist might... without condemning or praising. We can look at it amorally.
Most folks I know use the word terrorist in a way that's bound to condemnation. To suggest that this roots the condemnation in a known correct criteria makes sense only... subjectively.
No, I could not have said yes, unless I did not care whether I understood your question. What has my chess example to do with whether there are moral absolutes (whatever those are) I cannot imagine.
Of course we can ask the factual question whether the bomber was a terrorist (which does not mean only "intended to create terror") and this is apart from a moral judgment about terrorism. But, as I just pointed out, when someone is called a terrorist what is meant is not only that he intended to create terror. What that also means is that he also intentionally targeted defenseless people. Now, most people would tend to make a moral judgment about intentionally targeting defenseless people. It would be negative. Don't you agree?
---------- Post added 05-26-2010 at 05:29 AM ----------
Reconstructo;168843 wrote:The beauty of chess is that it's a mathematical system. In principle, it's
ideally precise. And this ideal conceptual precision, highly abstract, is easily managed by a finite body of rules. If only human existence were this simple...but then we would get bored.
Probably you are right. What has that to do with the issue? It is still true that when someone intentionally targets defenseless people he is a terrorist. That is what "terrorism" means.
---------- Post added 05-26-2010 at 05:36 AM ----------
Let's get back to the thread. The silliness of the slogan that one man's X is another man's Y lies in the assumption that there is no real difference between X and Y, but that it is merely a matter of attitude whether it is a case of X (e.g. rudeness) or Y (e.g. politeness). And that assumption is usually just false. In my example, it was just a matter of fact that the student was being rude, and that he was not being polite.