Yes, I can.
It was about Jesus' words to the woman who had been caught in adultery.
Jhn 8:10 When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee?
Jhn 8:11 She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.
You see he told her not to sin again. berg told us that this was not a sin--yet here we have Jesus telling this woman that it was.
It was this question over if it weren't a sin then why did Jesus call it such/ that I couldn't answer.
I am sorry to dig up an old post. I just thought I'd let you all know that the doctrine that TF teaches about this exact story is that: "She was under the Mosaic Law because Jesus hadn't died yet. So he forgave her because she was sinning. We are living after Jesus death. So we are free from such 'laws'. We are not sinning. To us there is no adultery" Etc etc etc and so on and so forth is so many words.
Then on TF website there is a statement about the Law of Love. It says in order for it not to be adultery, it has to be done in love.
Ummmm... Then why are they justifying the above scripture in that way? All they have to say is that she didn't do it in love. That would be in-line with their teachings. However such consistency cannot be expected from TF.
They can't explain what Jesus said about what comes out of a man defiles him. Can they? That'll be the next one to see.
"Well just was talking about spiritual fornication. You see? It's all in the spirit."
Yawn... Water it down and explain away the Bible... Nice one. Thanks for serving me BS for devotions.