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Yes, and this is simply part of the technique used. There is a bit of cultural emotion in such linguistic style, and we'll find it in other literature of the time.
That's interesting. Could you point me to the other literature of the time where that linguistic style is present?
There is no spiritual meaning in 1 Cor 1:19~25, just as there is no spiritual meaning in 1 Cor 15:22~28.
You are most incorrect, Deckard, in saying that what Paul had said there is not what he had written there in that context (point in time and circumstance [history], theological based religious belief-system foundation wise [system's culture]). How is it you make such a bold statement? At least it would be good to provide the argumentation for that from the database of information there.
Anyone else concur? Seems dubious to me that one is able to declare unequivocally where in the Bible there is, and is not, 'spiritual meaning'. It think it far more likely it is evenly distributed, but for those without the ears to hear it.
I'm interested to hear what the forum thinks of the inversion of wisdom and power found in these verses.
I suggest that we welcome all interpretations, including the historical contextual ones.
It's only within a living human being that any sentence has meaning.
It is a parable for the urgency of spiritual awakening, and the futility of rationality (= Greek) or religiosity (= Jewish) in that undertaking. The wisdom of God is folly to the world. In the Christian revelation, God was born among men in a lowly manger, and suffered the fate of a criminal on the Cross. This is ridiculous in the eyes of the Roman state (the Gentiles): their Gods rode chariots, ruled the heavens, and were at the top of the celestial hierarchy, so the painful facts of Jesus life were an extremely inconvenient truth and stumbling block to all concerned.
. His meaning is eternal and is the eternal archetype, as Christian Platonism would say. As another Pauline verse has it: 'I live, yet I live not, for Christ lives in me.'
By the way, I really, really don't want to discourage your scholarly contributions KaseiJin. They are very welcome and much appreciated.
As for spiritual meaning... the thing is I think Reconstructo is right: the words are dead scribbles. Hamlet comes to life in a human psyche (soul). There's no living Hamlet to be found by analyzing the text scientifically. Only shadows.
What we do know is the the Semitic people were traveling merchants. They most likely were involved in trade connecting China to Egypt as far back as 1000 BC. Along the trade routes were oases where travelers would stop. One of the favorite pastimes in these oases was talk about religion. It was here that Israelites, Buddhists, and others would share ideas. (Foltz -- Religions of the Silk Road)
Kaseijin is saying there's no spiritual meaning in the OP scripture.
I suggest that we welcome all interpretations, including the historical contextual ones.
Obviously, the letters of Paul were included in the Bible because they speak to other audiences besides (in this example) the Corinthians.
What book are we talking about, I asked myself? Why, it's the Bible, came the answer, probably the Number 1 Spiritual Book of all times.
. Additionally, we have to use these by placing our frame and reference points of reading them, in that time-locked religio-socio-culturally-determined environment, of that moment--not ours.
Kaseijin is saying there's no spiritual meaning in the OP scripture. I say put yourself in their shoes.
This is just my view, and in no way is meant to disparage your view, which I find also quite valid. I am interested in historical meanings.
I stand most firm in the better understanding that there is no spiritual meaning there at the passage in question on this thread, unless by that one simply means emotional element (but then my 'Calvin and Hobbies' (the cartoon strip) book has much spiritual meaning also), but it does speak to me, if one wishes to use such colloquialism.
I stand most firm in the better understanding that there is no spiritual meaning there at the passage in question on this thread
We may regard this energy driving at practice, this paramount sense of the obligation of duty, self-control, and work, this earnestness in going manfully with the best light we have, as one force. And we may regard the intelligence driving at those ideas which are, after all, the basis of right practice, the ardent sense for all the new and changing combinations of them which man's development brings with it, the indomitable impulse to know and adjust them perfectly, as another force. And these two forces we may regard as in some sense rivals, - rivals not by the necessity of their own nature, but as exhibited in man and his history, - and rivals dividing the empire of the world between them. And to give these forces names from the two races of men who have supplied the most signal and splendid manifestations of them, we may call them respectively the forces of Hebraism and Hellenism. Hebraism and Hellenism, - between these two points of influence moves our world. At one time it feels more powerfully the attraction of one of them, at another time of the other; and it ought to be, though it never is, evenly and happily balanced between them.
The final aim of both Hellenism and Hebraism, as of all great spiritual disciplines, is no doubt the same: man's perfection or salvation...
those who have voiced opinions and thoughts would follow and reason along, most carefully, with me on this.
If we were to ask, 'what does that text say to you,' then we could just all give our opinions, and let it go at that...not making any effort to ascribe our internal (as in the brain alone, rather than being actual external elements of the fact of reality [as best known]) emotions to that of that author or those readers.