@LWSleeth,
De Silentio,
I made the picture in Microsoft paint (on that note, what's the deal with fine lines and boundaries getting pixilated when you save a paint file as a jpeg?). The way I did it was that I drew the circles, colored them, then did an outline of the box in white and colored the box in orange. But its not so much how I drew the circles, etc, but the inference associated with the rectangle. In my own perspective, it does not matter which one I drew first, it is the fact that you see a rectangle that essentially is not there. But there is also something to be said about the fact that it is a "subjective surface," that is, it is implied to be on top of the green circles to begin with.
But I like your analysis though. It rings sorta like Aristotles conception of being in relation to ontological metaphysics, where we consider the attributes of things on top of a blank substrate. But even if I told you it was made with photoshop or any other data pertaining to the picture, would that really make a difference in simpler terms? I would think that would be an excess application of attributes we would have to clear away anyway to get at the final layers of the substrate.
In regards to your last response, that you cannot accept my thesis. I disagree (of course) but I can appreciate your analysis. The only issue is that in the case of the picture, you utilize a presupposed set of ideas to infer something,( that I used a rectangle tool, etc). Berkeley said it himself that to be is to be perceived. Ironically, I would think his emphasis on ideas and sensations rather than the a-posteriori conceptions of matter would fit well with my assumption? and he was an empiricist.
Holiday20310401,
So you would assume that because there is a boundary that bounds another shape, it could possibly exist? I think there is a lot of merit in that. I think under this note, it would be another type of attribute affixed to the subjective surface. That's actually pretty interesting to assume a dominant attribute.
In regards to your question, you say I have equated subjective with rational. To have a subjective opinion for example, you are inferring your own personal opinion and giving value to something via that opinion. Saying "I think that that painting is beautiful" is a subjective inference. It is your opinion. This is in stark contrast to an objective opinion, which infers that beauty is inherent in the painting? that the painting is somehow infused with beauty on its own? you could lock the picture away and no one on earth would see it and it would still be beautiful. Now take that definition on what it means to be subjective, to have a value inferred upon it by personal judgment and keep it in mind. What then does it mean to be a rationalist (because we are talking about rationalism in terms of epistemology because this is the epistemology section)? A rationalist supposes that knowledge comes before the senses, it comes
a-priori. In regards to the picture in this thread, a rationalist would suppose that the rectangle is an inherent part of the picture, it was always there and that our inference as to its existence is translated because we rationalize it is there. There are a myriad of aspects associated with this, but I am just going with my own sliver of the theory. Obviously, there is no contiguous rectangle in the picture, just what appears to be a rectangle on the fascia of the circles. How can a rectangle be there if it is not even a contiguous rectangle? We infer it is there. It is a subjective inference, that is, in our minds, we personally judge that the shape is contiguous in some way or another besides the fact that it is not a contiguous geometric shape. As in the picture in post #5, the shape could be three shapes for all intents and purposes. We could infer that as well? we could have a subjective opinion about it. But the thing is we have to rationalize that the rectangle is there though in either case. Can the rectangle be inferred by empirical means by inferring it is there (forget Berkeley for a second when I ask this)? I don't think so. It is not contiguous.
LWSleeth,
I think the way you are applying rationalistic and empirical views which are not really applicable to abstract epistemology. Seems more like you are picking and choosing based on an pseudo-scientific empirical base. There is certainly nothing wrong with this though in my opinion though, just that it may be too narrow in scope than what I was trying to get at.
As to your thoughts that the real issue is how the brain works? that's not really as abstract as the epistemological implications involved. It just shoves the issue as a causal explanation. I think the issue may be that you are trying to apply the
scientific applications here, which is not a bad thing, but just narrow. If it's like this, the empiricist would say that the object is out while the rationalist would say the object is in. Funny though, most of the rest of your post following the video supposes the empirical epistemological approach? which is hard when you deny that it is either a rationalist or an empirical one. if a mind grows familiar with a shape for example, doesn't that infer that (from the empirical perspective) that the data's was registered over and over to a point where we lock in the inference? The same applies to your last paragraph as well.