@kennethamy,
kennethamy;84540 wrote:But what if a person has a clear conception of a ghost?
Two possibilities: One;
He has a conception of something physically measurable (has physical effects), then we have a valid hypothesis that we can test, and if evidence permits his position it will hold until it is either shown to be the case or shown not to be the case. Pretty simple.
Two;
He has a conception of something that is not physically measurable (has no physical effects), so it is not ontologically valid. Therefore it would have no bearing on any phenomena and so is not a possible cause. Also pretty simple.
---------- Post added 08-20-2009 at 05:49 PM ----------
William;84559 wrote:I think he who is open-minded leaves all possibilities on the table and open for discussion until they can proven "positively" false. It is the attempt of the close-minded to close those open minds which the video is trying to do in offering the analogies it did. A very subtle ploy of those who think they know everything, IMO. There are phenomena that occur in this reality of which many experience, such as coincidences and prodigious savants that can more accurately be define as a different sensory perception, if not "extra", that differ's from what is commonly espoused. The close minded choose not to recognize those and totally ignore them for it would not appear to be intelligent in that others might consider them "dumb", to consider them. Yes, this is an assumption on my part, but I feel there is evidence to support it such as the video did in offering his definitions of open and close minded of which I think he tried to confuse the two. IMO.
William
The rational mind excludes those that cannot be assessed to any degree one way or another. The rational mind demands clarity in what is proposed. If what is proposed is not sufficiently clear, then no judgment can be made about it so it has no real explanatory value.
Everything that can be sensed can be sensed because it has a physical effect, do you agree with that? If something has a physical effect, then it can be measured, do you agree with that?
If you agree with both of those, then it follows that every sensible event is measurable and physical (which are really the same thing). If an event is not measurable, it has no effect since an effect is measurable apriori. So any event must be physical in nature, thus 'supernatural event' or 'supernatural being' are both self contradictory. The only reason I can see that you would disagree with me is that you assign different meanings to the words in question. My source is the dictionary.
Supernatural:
1 : of or relating to an order of existence beyond the visible observable universe;
especially : of or relating to God or a god, demigod, spirit, or devil
2 a : departing from what is usual or normal especially so as to appear to transcend the laws of nature
b : attributed to an invisible agent (as a ghost or spirit)
Clearly my argument works for 1, so lets look at 2. Appears is a key word in 2a, it appears to transcend the laws of nature. Clearly this is due to a misconception of what 'the laws of nature' refers to. The appearance would certainly seem reasonable if one thought that the laws of nature were those that we knew of and had mathematical models of, but this is not the case. We have approximations of the observed behavior of nature, but we have no 'laws of nature'. The laws of nature are not known to us and fall into the category of unknowable. We do not have any say over them. If a phenomena occurs that does not fit with our current models, we have to adapt the models to better approximate what really is happening. Nothing violates 'the laws of nature', only our observation based models.
2b is not sufficiently clear or specific.