@jgweed,
jgweed;96004 wrote:To quote Nietzsche, "There are no moral phenomena, only moral interpretations of phenomena." Thus, it is impossible to prove that an action is moral or immoral, if by prove one means to provide objective and universal justification for the act.
As the Existentialists remark, one must often make moral choices without any guarantees about its outcome or indeed its moral status, yet one must therefore take responsibility for one's choice.
Of course, morality is not like physics, so, as Aristotle said, we should not expect the kind of "proofs" in morality that we expect in physics, just as we should not expect the kind of "proof" in physics that we expect in morality.
But, if you come to think of it, we don't expect the same kind of "proof" in history that we expect in physics either. Take the issue of the cause of American Civil War. Slavery, state's rights, economic issue, and so on, have been offered as explanations for the war. And, of course, advocates of those different explanations present their reasons for thinking that their view is the right one. And some are more plausible than others. But, we don't expect a knock-down proof there either. So, the standard of proof differs from subject to subject, and it is an error (IMO) to condemn an argument in one subject because it does not meet the standards of a very different subject. When we point out that Hitler was responsible for the deaths of millions, and that his motives and intentions were, themselves, very suspect, we have what, in morality constitutes a very plausible argument for his being an evil man. In morality. Not, of course, in physics, where the issues of good and evil do not arise.
By the way, it would be interesting to see how Nietzche proved his view that, "There are no moral phenomena, only moral
interpretations of phenomena.". Would that proof stand up as, say, the kind of proof we get in mathematics?