@jgweed,
Hey Jgweed, thanks for the reply! May I ask you a very stupid question probably. In my course we discuss ethics in the light of pre-industrialization society and society after that. in the industrialized society one has different moralities in different settings while before there was common morality. But in class there is a distinction made with regard to this pre- and industrialisation between platonic and aristotelian thinking.
Whenr esearching for both views I however don't become clear on what these two precisely entail. I know plato is from the meta-physical, idealism and form etc and aristotle more of Logic and substance. However because both operated and talked about many subjects i get confused since plato also has wuite a mathematical view on some things?
Could you maybe explain the two views and has the concept of industrialisation to be understood from a platonic or aristotelian way? I think aristotilian way right, because he talks about different functions of a human more which is a characteristic of industrialisation?
Thanks for the help in advance!
p.s. excuse me for my english i am not a native english speaker.